the method of splinting is always dictated by

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. The method of splinting is always dictated by:

A. location of the injury and whether it is open or closed.
B. the severity of the client's condition and the priority decision.
C. the number of available rescuers and the type of splints.
D. all of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the severity of the client's condition and the priority decision.' When determining the method of splinting, it is crucial to consider the severity of the client's condition and make decisions based on their priority. Choice A is incorrect because while the location of the injury and whether it is open or closed are important factors, they do not always dictate the method of splinting. Choice C is incorrect as the number of available rescuers and the type of splints may impact the execution of splinting but do not solely dictate the method. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests that all the factors mentioned dictate the method, but in reality, the severity of the client's condition and the priority decision are the primary factors.

2. Which of the following microorganisms are considered normal body flora?

A. staphylococcus on the skin
B. streptococcus in the nares
C. candida albicans in the vagina
D. pseudomonas in the blood

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Staphylococcus is considered normal body flora as it is commonly found on the skin, being a part of the normal microbiota. While streptococcus in the nares can be part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract, it is not as common or as widespread as staphylococcus on the skin. Candida albicans in the vagina is not considered normal flora; it is a common opportunistic pathogen in the vagina. Pseudomonas in the blood is also not considered normal body flora; pseudomonas is not typically found in the blood as part of the normal microbiota.

3. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.

4. Which of the following is not an advanced directive?

A. informed consent
B. living will
C. durable power of attorney for health care
D. health care proxy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention. It is not considered an advanced directive. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they are unable to communicate. A durable power of attorney for health care designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the patient. A health care proxy, which is another term for a durable power of attorney for health care, also involves appointing someone to make healthcare decisions for an individual if they become unable to do so. Therefore, the correct answer is 'informed consent,' as it is not an advanced directive but rather a different aspect of patient care.

5. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

A. LDH
B. troponin
C. CPK
D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.