the nurse working the emergency department ed should see which client first
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.

2. After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client with chest pain, it is essential for the nurse to post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room. This safety precaution alerts healthcare providers and visitors that the client is receiving oxygen therapy, reducing the risk of accidents or misunderstandings. Choice A is incorrect because instructing the client to take slow deep breaths is not the appropriate intervention after applying oxygen. Choice C suggests applying Vaseline and gauze, which is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Choice D advising the client to hyperextend the neck, take deep breaths, and cough is not indicated after applying oxygen therapy and could potentially be harmful.

3. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A microdrop set delivers 60 drops per milliliter of IV fluid. This allows for a more precise control of the infusion rate. The correct choice is B because it provides the desired microdrop rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A delivers 15 drops per milliliter, which is a macrodrop set. C delivers 20 drops per milliliter, also a macrodrop set. D delivers 10 drops per milliliter, another macrodrop set. Therefore, the correct choice for a microdrop set is B.

4. What type of cells create exocrine secretions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acinar cells are responsible for creating exocrine secretions, such as enzymes and digestive juices. Alpha cells are found in the pancreas and are responsible for producing glucagon, beta cells produce insulin, and plasma cells are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is acinar cells, as they specifically produce exocrine secretions.

5. What must the evening nurse do to facilitate the client's ECT treatment the next morning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment, obtaining informed consent is crucial before the procedure. This ensures the patient is aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the treatment. Administering medications, ensuring rest, and dietary restrictions are important but not directly related to the specific requirement of obtaining informed consent for ECT. The correct answer, ensuring the patient signs an informed consent form, is essential to uphold the patient's autonomy and ensure they have the necessary information to make an informed decision about their treatment.

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