Nursing Elites

1. While assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, a nurse percusses the area, and the client complains of sharp pain. The nurse interprets this finding as most indicative of which disorder?

• A. Liver enlargement
• B. Ovarian infection
• C. Spleen enlargement
• D. Kidney inflammation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, sharp pain on percussion of the area indicates inflammation of the kidney or paranephric area. The correct technique involves placing one hand over the 12th rib, at the costovertebral angle, and thumping that hand with the ulnar edge of the other fist. The client normally feels a thud and should not experience pain. Ovarian infection, liver enlargement, or spleen enlargement are not associated with the costovertebral angle tenderness. Therefore, the correct answer is kidney inflammation.

2. When assessing the carotid artery of a client with cardiovascular disease, what action should a nurse perform?

• A. Palpating the carotid artery in the upper third of the neck
• B. Palpating both arteries simultaneously to compare amplitude
• C. Listening to the carotid artery, using the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits
• D. Instructing the client to take slow, deep breaths while the nurse listens to the carotid artery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing the carotid artery of a client with cardiovascular disease, the nurse should listen to the carotid artery using the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits. This is crucial in detecting abnormal sounds that may indicate underlying pathology. Palpating the carotid artery in the upper third of the neck can trigger a vagal response, leading to a decrease in heart rate, which is undesirable. Palpating both arteries simultaneously can disrupt blood flow to the brain. Instructing the client to take slow, deep breaths is unnecessary and not a standard practice during carotid artery assessment.

3. An LPN is reviewing medication lists for several clients recently admitted to the hospital. Which of the following scenarios would be least concerning?

• A. A client taking allopurinol for gout states they have been taking black cohosh to help with post-menopausal symptoms.
• B. A client has an order for warfarin and states they have been taking Ginkgo biloba to improve their memory.
• C. A client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost.
• D. A client has a prescription for an SSRI and states they have been taking St. John's wort to also help with their depression.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least concerning scenario is when a client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost. While ginseng may cause an increased risk of bleeding, it should not interact with Lipitor. On the other hand, St. John's wort should not be taken with an SSRI as it may cause serotonin syndrome, posing a more serious concern. Black cohosh should not be taken with allopurinol as they can both cause hepatotoxicity, especially in combination. Ginkgo biloba should not be taken with warfarin as it causes an increased risk of bleeding, making it a more concerning scenario compared to the client taking Lipitor and ginseng.

4. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

• A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
• B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
• C. overlap of cranial bones.
• D. ossification of the sutures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the anterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the anterior fontanel should be closed. The posterior fontanel should actually close by the age of 2 months, making choice A incorrect. Overlap of cranial bones is not a typical finding in a normal 10-month-old baby's skull, so choice C is incorrect. Ossification of the sutures is an ongoing process in skull development and should not be a definitive indicator at this age, making choice D incorrect.

5. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

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