a nurse assisting with data collection is monitoring the client for costovertebral angle tenderness when the nurse percusses the area the client compl
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions

1. While assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, a nurse percusses the area, and the client complains of sharp pain. The nurse interprets this finding as most indicative of which disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, sharp pain on percussion of the area indicates inflammation of the kidney or paranephric area. The correct technique involves placing one hand over the 12th rib, at the costovertebral angle, and thumping that hand with the ulnar edge of the other fist. The client normally feels a thud and should not experience pain. Ovarian infection, liver enlargement, or spleen enlargement are not associated with the costovertebral angle tenderness. Therefore, the correct answer is kidney inflammation.

2. The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ≤350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations. Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.

3. A nurse notes the presence of variable decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor strip and suspects cord compression. The nurse should immediately perform which action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When variable decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor strip suggest cord compression, the immediate action the nurse should take is to reposition the mother to alleviate the compression. Elevating the mother's hips or changing her position can help shift the fetal presenting part and relieve pressure on the cord. This action aims to improve or resolve the variable decelerations. Contacting the registered nurse may be necessary, but it is not the immediate action required in this situation. Performing a vaginal examination is contraindicated due to the potential risk of further compromising blood flow through the umbilical cord. Inserting a gloved finger into the mother's vagina to feel for the cord is also not recommended as it poses a similar risk of exacerbating the situation.

4. A 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV comes to a clinic for immunizations. Which of the following vaccines should the healthcare provider expect to administer in addition to the scheduled vaccines?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the pneumococcal vaccine. Children with HIV are at increased risk of pneumococcal infections, so the pneumococcal vaccine is recommended as a supplemental vaccine for them. The hepatitis A vaccine is not routinely given to HIV-positive children unless they have other risk factors for hepatitis A. Lyme disease vaccine is for individuals at risk for Lyme disease, not routinely recommended for a 2-year-old. Typhoid vaccine is typically given to individuals traveling to endemic areas or working in settings with potential exposure to Salmonella typhi, not a routine vaccine for a 2-year-old with HIV.

5. The nurse is observing a client self-administer two crushable medications through their G-tube. Which of the following would indicate a need for further instruction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula. Medications should not be mixed with tube-feeding formula or other medications as it may alter their effectiveness. The G-tube should be flushed before, between, and after the medications to prevent clogging and ensure proper administration. The client should remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after medication administration to prevent reflux. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the proper post-administration positioning. Choices A and C are incorrect as flushing the G-tube before, between, and after medications, and mixing each medication separately in warm water are appropriate procedures that do not indicate a need for further instruction.

Similar Questions

A nurse assisting with data collection uses the back of the hand to feel the client's skin on both arms and notes that the skin is warm. The nurse makes which determination?
Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?
The client has an order for a 1,000 mL bag of fluids to be infused over 8 hours. What is the correct rate?
During an interview, what action should a nurse conducting an interview with a client take to collect subjective data?

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