Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?

• A. The cervix is pink.
• B. The cervix is midline.
• C. The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
• D. Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.

2. A client is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client is alert and cooperative but has sustained multiple fractures of the legs. How should the nurse proceed with data collection?

• A. Collect health history information first while initiating emergency measures.
• B. Ask health history questions while performing the examination and initiating emergency measures.
• C. Collect all information requested on the history form, including social support, strengths, and coping patterns.
• D. Perform emergency measures and delay health history questions until after treating the fractures in the operating room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is alert and cooperative but has sustained multiple fractures, the nurse should prioritize obtaining health history information while performing the examination and initiating emergency measures. This approach allows the nurse to gather essential information without delaying immediate interventions. Option A is incorrect because collecting health history information before addressing the immediate need for treatment may lead to a delay in necessary interventions. Option C is incorrect as it includes non-urgent aspects of data collection that are not a priority in this critical situation. Option D is incorrect because delaying health history questions until after treating the fractures may result in missing crucial information essential for the client's immediate care.

3. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

4. During an interview, what action should a nurse conducting an interview with a client take to collect subjective data?

• A. Takes minimal notes to avoid impeding observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors
• B. Takes a great deal of notes to allow the client to continue at his or her own pace as the nurse records what he or she is saying
• C. Takes notes because this allows the nurse to break eye contact with the client, which may increase the client's level of comfort
• D. Takes notes to allow the nurse to shift attention away from the client, which may make the nurse more comfortable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an interview, a nurse should minimize note-taking to focus on the client and not impede the conversation. Taking minimal notes allows the nurse to effectively observe the client's nonverbal behaviors, which provide valuable subjective data. Option B, taking many notes, is incorrect as it can distract the nurse from the client's cues and hinder interaction. Option C, taking notes to break eye contact, is incorrect as it may decrease the client's comfort level and disrupt communication. Option D, taking notes to shift attention away from the client, is incorrect as it diminishes the client's importance and may make them uncomfortable during sensitive discussions. Therefore, the correct approach is for the nurse to take minimal notes, ensuring effective observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors while collecting subjective data.

5. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' If an 11-12-month-old child is unable to pull to a standing position, it can indicate a risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By 15 months of age, children should be walking, so delayed standing can be a red flag. The Trendelenburg sign is associated with gluteus medius muscle weakness, not hip dysplasia, making choice C incorrect. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital hip subluxation or dislocation, not developmental dysplasia, making choice D incorrect.

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