a new nursing graduate indicates in charting entries that he is a licensed practical nurse although he has not yet received the results of the licensi
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. A new nursing graduate indicates in charting entries that he is a licensed practical nurse, although he has not yet received the results of the licensing exam. The graduate's action can result in what type of charge?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fraud.' Identifying oneself as a nurse without a license defrauds the public and can lead to prosecution. A tort is a wrongful act in breach of a legal duty imposed by law; malpractice is the failure to act appropriately as a nurse or acting in a way that harm comes to the client; and negligence is failing to perform care. In this scenario, the key issue is the misrepresentation of licensure status, which constitutes fraud. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

2. A client is admitted to the acute care unit. Initial laboratory values reveal serum sodium of 170meq/L. What behavior changes would be most common for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Mania.' A client with a serum sodium level of 170 meq/L has hypernatremia, which can lead to manic behavior. Hypernatremia is associated with irritability, restlessness, confusion, and in severe cases, manic symptoms. Choices A, C, and D (Anger, Depression, Psychosis) are not typically associated with hypernatremia and are, therefore, incorrect in this context.

3. The nurse is assigned to care for an infant with physiologic jaundice. Which action by the nurse would facilitate elimination of the bilirubin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bilirubin is excreted through the kidneys, therefore increasing fluid intake can help facilitate its elimination. Maintaining the infant's body temperature is important for overall health but does not directly assist in eliminating bilirubin, making choice B incorrect. Choices C and D are irrelevant to bilirubin elimination in this scenario and do not address the specific issue of physiologic jaundice.

4. What is a common characteristic of a batterer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that a batterer is typically someone who was physically or psychologically abused. Research shows that many individuals who engage in abusive behavior report a history of being abused themselves. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it is possible for a batterer to have grown up in a loving, secure home, been an only child, or acknowledge their anger issues, the most common factor associated with becoming a batterer is a history of being abused.

5. A client goes to the mental health center for difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares. The client reports being raped as a child. The nurse should assess the client for further signs of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Given the history of childhood sexual abuse and the presenting symptoms of difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares, the nurse should assess the client for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Childhood sexual abuse is strongly associated with adult-onset depression and an increased risk for PTSD. Individuals with PTSD may exhibit re-experiencing symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, and heightened reactions to trauma triggers. They may also display emotional numbing, avoidance behaviors, and increased arousal symptoms like difficulty sleeping and hypervigilance. Generalized anxiety disorder (Choice A) is characterized by excessive worry and anxiety about various events or activities, not necessarily tied to a specific trauma. Schizophrenia (Choice B) is a severe mental disorder characterized by distortions in thinking, perception, emotions, and behavior, unrelated to the traumatic event described. Bipolar disorder (Choice D) involves mood swings between depressive and manic episodes, and its symptoms differ from those typically seen in PTSD.

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