NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:
- A. denial
- B. suppression
- C. displacement
- D. fantasy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Displacement is the transference of emotions, such as anger, to a substitute target that may be less threatening. In this scenario, James redirects his anger from the teacher to the dog. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Suppression is consciously putting aside unwanted thoughts or feelings. Fantasy involves imagining unrealistic scenarios. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is displacement as James displaces his anger towards the dog.
2. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously.
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.
3. A man reports his wife is constantly cleaning, which interferes with family life. Friends avoid visiting due to feeling uncomfortable. The husband finds her cleaning even at night. The nurse should consult and recommend the husband help with therapy by:
- A. telling his wife to stop cleaning whenever he notices her actions.
- B. making a baseline record of the time the wife spends cleaning.
- C. decreasing the stimuli in the home.
- D. helping his wife with the cleaning.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the stimuli in the home. The wife's behavior suggests obsessive-compulsive disorder, an anxiety disorder. By reducing stimuli in the environment, such as clutter or triggers that prompt cleaning, it helps in managing the condition and promoting a calmer atmosphere. Option A is incorrect as directly telling the wife to stop can escalate her anxiety. Option B is not the priority initially, as addressing the root cause is more crucial. Option D may reinforce the behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue.
4. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.
5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
- A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
- B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
- C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
- D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.
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