NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. During discharge teaching for a client with diverticulitis on a low-roughage diet, which food should be eliminated from the diet?
- A. Roasted chicken
- B. Noodles
- C. Cooked broccoli
- D. Custard
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client with diverticulitis needs to avoid gas-forming foods that can increase abdominal discomfort. Cooked broccoli is a high-fiber food that can worsen symptoms. Roasted chicken, noodles, and custard are suitable choices for a low-roughage diet as they are less likely to cause gas formation or abdominal discomfort.
2. A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with
- A. wearing clothing that is too small for the child
- B. the child being shaken
- C. falling while learning to walk
- D. parents trying to awaken the child
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the child being shaken.' Children who are shaken are frequently grasped by both upper arms, leading to bruises in that area. The presentation of a difficult-to-awaken child with bruises on the upper arms is highly concerning for non-accidental trauma, such as abusive shaking. Symptoms of brain injury associated with shaking include a decreased level of consciousness. Choices A, C, and D are less likely because the combination of a child being difficult to awaken and bruises on both upper arms is highly suggestive of non-accidental trauma rather than benign causes like ill-fitting clothing, falling while learning to walk, or parents trying to awaken the child.
3. The client is scheduled for a pericentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the exam?
- A. "You will need to lie flat during the exam."?
- B. "You need to empty your bladder before the procedure."?
- C. "You will be asleep during the procedure."?
- D. "The doctor will inject a medication to treat your illness during the procedure."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client scheduled for a pericentesis should be instructed to empty the bladder to prevent the risk of bladder puncture when the needle is inserted. A pericentesis involves removing fluid from the peritoneal cavity. The client is typically positioned sitting up or leaning over a table, making answer A incorrect. During a pericentesis, the client is usually awake, so answer C is incorrect. Medications are not commonly injected into the peritoneal cavity during this procedure, making answer D incorrect. However, it's important to note that the administration of medications during the procedure could vary based on specific circumstances.
4. A woman asks, "How much alcohol can I safely drink while pregnant?"? The nurse's best response is:
- A. "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."?
- B. "Consuming one or two beers or glasses of wine a day is considered safe for a healthy pregnant woman."?
- C. "Drinking three or more drinks on any given occasion is the only harmful type of drinking during pregnancy."?
- D. "You can have a drink to help you relax and get to sleep at night."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."? This response is appropriate because there is no known safe amount of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Consuming any amount of alcohol during pregnancy can pose risks to the developing fetus, leading to conditions like fetal alcohol syndrome, which is a combination of mental and physical abnormalities in infants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests that consuming one or two drinks a day is safe during pregnancy, which is not supported by current medical guidelines. Choice C incorrectly states that only drinking three or more drinks on any given occasion is harmful, when in reality, any amount of alcohol can be harmful to the fetus. Choice D is inappropriate as it suggests that having a drink to relax and sleep is acceptable during pregnancy, which is not the case.
5. A 12-year-old male is brought to his primary care provider to determine whether sexual abuse has occurred. The mother states, 'Because there is no permanent physical damage, he does not need any more treatment.' The nurse's response should be based on which of the following pieces of information?
- A. Male victims of sexual abuse can have long-term psychological problems.
- B. Survivors of male sexual abuse might become confused about their sexual identity.
- C. Unless treated, all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children.
- D. All children who have been sexually abused have the same needs, regardless of gender.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Male children are sexually abused nearly as often as female children. Perpetrators are usually men but can be women. Needs of male children who have been sexually abused might be different from the needs of female survivors. Male survivors might respond in anger, question their sexuality, use alcohol and other drugs, and might try to prove their masculinity by performing daring acts. It is crucial for the nurse to consider these potential outcomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because male victims of sexual abuse can indeed have long-term psychological problems, so the nurse should be aware of this issue. Choice C is incorrect as not all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children, which is a misconception. Choice D is incorrect because the needs of children who have been sexually abused can vary based on various factors, including gender, so it is important to consider individual differences.
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