Nursing Elites

1. A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and reports that her infant is passing seedy, mustard-yellow stools. The nurse provides the mother with which information?

• A. To monitor the infant for infection and, if a fever develops, to contact the pediatrician
• B. That the stools should be solid and pale yellow to light brown
• C. That this is normal for breastfed infants
• D. To decrease the number of feedings by two per day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Breastfed infants pass very soft, seedy, mustard-yellow stools, which is considered normal. Formula-fed infants excrete stools that are more solid and pale yellow to light brown. It is essential for the mother to understand that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are expected in breastfed infants, indicating that there is no need for concern. Monitoring for infection as the first response without other symptoms can cause unnecessary anxiety. Decreasing the number of feedings without valid reasons can lead to inadequate nutrition for the newborn. Therefore, the correct advice for the nurse to provide in this scenario is that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are normal for breastfed infants, reassuring the mother and promoting proper understanding of newborn stool characteristics.

2. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?

• A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
• B. In-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
• C. A voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
• D. A urologist consult.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urologist consult is the most appropriate intervention for a client with visible blood at the urethral meatus and suspected genitourinary trauma. This specialist can evaluate the extent of the trauma and provide the necessary treatment. Foley catheter insertion (Choice A) and in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis (Choice B) are contraindicated in the presence of genitourinary trauma as they can worsen the injury. While a voided urine specimen for urinalysis (Choice C) may be ordered by the physician, it does not address the specific management needed for genitourinary trauma. Therefore, a urologist consult is the best option in this scenario.

3. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

• A. 100 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 200 mL/hr
• D. 50 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

4. Diagnostic genetic counseling, for procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, allows clients to make all of the following choices except:

• A. terminating the pregnancy.
• B. preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
• C. accessing support services before the birth.
• D. completing the grieving process before the birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diagnostic genetic counseling provides clients with important information to make informed decisions regarding their pregnancy. Clients can choose to terminate the pregnancy, prepare for the birth of a child with special needs, and access support services before the birth based on the genetic testing results. However, completing the grieving process before the birth is not a typical choice during genetic counseling. The grieving process, if needed, may extend beyond the prenatal period, especially if the findings are concerning or indicate potential issues. Therefore, completing the grieving process before the birth is the exception among the provided options.

5. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

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