Nursing Elites

1. A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and reports that her infant is passing seedy, mustard-yellow stools. The nurse provides the mother with which information?

• A. To monitor the infant for infection and, if a fever develops, to contact the pediatrician
• B. That the stools should be solid and pale yellow to light brown
• C. That this is normal for breastfed infants
• D. To decrease the number of feedings by two per day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Breastfed infants pass very soft, seedy, mustard-yellow stools, which is considered normal. Formula-fed infants excrete stools that are more solid and pale yellow to light brown. It is essential for the mother to understand that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are expected in breastfed infants, indicating that there is no need for concern. Monitoring for infection as the first response without other symptoms can cause unnecessary anxiety. Decreasing the number of feedings without valid reasons can lead to inadequate nutrition for the newborn. Therefore, the correct advice for the nurse to provide in this scenario is that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are normal for breastfed infants, reassuring the mother and promoting proper understanding of newborn stool characteristics.

2. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

3. The LPN needs to determine the client's respiratory rate. What is the best technique to do this?

• A. Tell the client you need to count their respiratory rate.
• B. Subtly watch the client from across the room when they are doing an activity.
• C. Ask the client to sit still for 30 seconds.
• D. Count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best technique to determine a client's respiratory rate is to count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse. You should not inform the client that you are counting their respirations, as this might lead to a change in their breathing pattern. Pretending to check the pulse allows you to be close to the client without revealing that you are assessing their respiratory rate. Asking the client to sit still may not be as effective, as it may cause them to concentrate on their breathing. Watching from across the room may not provide an accurate assessment of respirations, as they might be difficult to observe.

4. What is the most appropriate initial action for a newborn infant with low blood glucose?

• A. Ask the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeat the test
• B. Contact the healthcare provider
• C. Contact the registered nurse
• D. Document the results in the newborn's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain greater than 40 mg/dL to prevent permanent brain damage. When dealing with low blood glucose in a newborn, the most appropriate initial action is to contact the registered nurse. The nurse will obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with low blood glucose and follow agency policies on feeding infants in such conditions. It is common practice to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL or less. Asking the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeating the test is not the most appropriate immediate action, as timely intervention is crucial in this situation. Contacting the healthcare provider may cause unnecessary delays since the registered nurse is usually the first point of contact for immediate actions in this scenario. Documenting the results in the newborn's medical record is essential, but it is not the initial step in managing low blood glucose in a newborn.

5. Which of the following foods is a complete protein?

• A. corn
• B. eggs
• C. peanuts
• D. sunflower seeds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'eggs.' Eggs are considered a complete protein as they contain all nine essential amino acids required by the body. On the other hand, corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are incomplete proteins, meaning they lack one or more of the essential amino acids needed by the body for optimal health. Corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are plant-based proteins that are deficient in one or more essential amino acids, unlike eggs, which are a high-quality complete protein source.

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