Nursing Elites

1. When should rehabilitation services begin?

• A. when the client enters the health care system.
• B. after the client requests rehabilitation services.
• C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
• D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can prevent complications, maximize recovery potential, and improve overall health outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because delaying rehabilitation until the client requests it may result in missed opportunities for timely intervention. Choice C is incorrect as waiting for the client's physical condition to stabilize can lead to unnecessary delays in starting the rehabilitation process, potentially slowing down recovery progress. Choice D is incorrect because starting rehabilitation only after discharge can hinder the recovery process by missing out on crucial early stages of intervention and support.

2. During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, what is the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents?

• A. the potential hazards of accidents
• B. appropriate nutrition now that the child has been weaned from breastfeeding
• C. toilet training
• D. how to purchase appropriate shoes now that the child is walking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents is the potential hazards of accidents. Accidents are the primary source of injury in children and can be life-threatening. Discussions about appropriate nutrition should have been addressed during the weaning process, while the purchase of appropriate shoes is important but not life-threatening. Toilet training typically begins around 2 years of age, so 1 year of age is too early to discuss it. Therefore, the focus should be on educating parents about accident prevention to ensure the child's safety and well-being.

3. A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?

• A. Near vision
• B. Central vision
• C. Peripheral vision
• D. Ocular movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.

4. An LPN is taking care of an elderly client who experiences the effects of Sundowner's Syndrome almost every evening. Which of these interventions implemented by the nurse would be the most helpful?

• A. Place a nightlight in the client's room.
• B. Administer the PRN sedative prescribed by the attending physician.
• C. Remind the client that the things and people they are seeing are not real and that they are safe.
• D. Turn on the TV or radio to a station the client enjoys.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nightlight will help reorient the client to his or her surroundings in the evening and nighttime hours. It is best not to challenge the reality of a client experiencing Sundowner's Syndrome, and sedatives may make the effects of the syndrome worse. Every effort should be made to keep the client's room calm, quiet, and peaceful, so noise should be kept to a minimum. Reminding the client that what they are experiencing is not real may cause distress and confusion, while turning on the TV or radio may add unnecessary stimulation instead of promoting a soothing environment.

5. When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, what technique should a nurse use?

• A. Ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap.
• B. Listen to the right lung first, then the left lung, moving from top to bottom systematically.
• C. Ask the client to take deep breaths through the mouth.
• D. Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against the client's chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, a nurse should ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little more deeply than usual but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should use the flat diaphragm end-piece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest wall. By using the diaphragm, the nurse can listen for at least one full respiration in each location, moving from side to side to compare sounds. This technique ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of lung sounds. Choice A is correct as it includes the proper positioning of the client and specifies the use of the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Choice B is incorrect as both lungs should be auscultated systematically, starting from the top and moving down. Choice C is incorrect as deep breaths, not shallow ones, are recommended for an accurate assessment of breath sounds.

Similar Questions