Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?

• A. a radiologist
• B. a gynecologist
• C. a physiatrist
• D. an oncologist

Correct answer: a gynecologist

Rationale: A gynecologist is the appropriate physician for this scenario as they specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive system, including postmenopausal bleeding. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate serious conditions such as endometrial cancer, which a gynecologist can evaluate and manage. A radiologist primarily evaluates X-rays and imaging studies, not directly involved in managing gynecological issues. A physiatrist is a specialist in physical medicine and rehabilitation, not related to gynecological concerns. An oncologist specializes in diagnosing and treating cancer, which is not the primary concern in this case of postmenopausal bleeding.

2. The mother of a newborn who was circumcised before discharge from the hospital calls the nurse at the pediatrician’s office and tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a yellow crust over the circumcision site. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. That it could indicate a sign of an infection and the infant’s temperature should be checked every 2 hours
• B. That the crust is to be expected as a normal part of healing
• C. To bring the infant to the pediatrician's office to be checked
• D. To remove the crust, using a warm, wet face cloth and a mild soap

Correct answer: That the crust is to be expected as a normal part of healing

Rationale: After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site, which is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be reassured that this crust is to be expected. Yellow crusting or discharge is not indicative of an infection, and there is no need to notify the pediatrician. Checking the infant's temperature every 2 hours is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary alarm to the mother.

3. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: 3+ edema

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

4. The LPN is caring for a client taking Lipitor (Atorvastatin). Which of these statements would indicate that the client may need reinforced teaching?

• A. “I take my Lipitor with a glass of milk after my breakfast.”
• B. “I take my Lipitor and wait 30 minutes before taking my other medications.”
• C. “I take my Lipitor 30 minutes after I eat something.”
• D. “I take my Lipitor and my other morning medications with my grapefruit juice at breakfast.”

Correct answer: “I take my Lipitor and my other morning medications with my grapefruit juice at breakfast.”

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I take my Lipitor and my other morning medications with my grapefruit juice at breakfast.' This statement indicates a need for reinforced teaching because grapefruit juice should be avoided when taking Lipitor. Grapefruit juice blocks the enzymes needed to break down the drug, which leads to excessive amounts of the drug in the body. Choices A, B, and C show appropriate timing and administration of Lipitor, whereas choice D poses a potential risk due to the interaction between grapefruit juice and Lipitor.

5. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

• A. 100 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 200 mL/hr
• D. 50 mL/hr

Correct answer: 100 mL/hr

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

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