Nursing Elites

1. A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?

• A. Venous insufficiency
• B. Intermittent claudication
• C. Sore muscles from overexertion
• D. Muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.

2. While taking the vital signs of a pregnant client admitted to the labor unit, a nurse notes a temperature of 100.6�F, pulse rate of 100 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on these findings?

• A. Notify the registered nurse of the findings.
• B. Document the findings in the client's medical record.
• C. Recheck the vital signs in 1 hour.
• D. Continue collecting subjective and objective data.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the registered nurse of the findings. In a pregnant client, the normal temperature range is 98�F to 99.6�F, with a pulse rate of 60 to 90 beats/min and respirations of 12 to 20 breaths/min. A temperature of 100.4�F or higher, along with an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests a possible infection. Immediate notification of the registered nurse is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. While documenting the findings is essential, the priority lies in promptly escalating abnormal vital signs for assessment and management. Rechecking vital signs in 1 hour may delay necessary interventions for a deteriorating condition. Continuing to collect data is relevant but should not delay informing the registered nurse when abnormal vital signs are present.

3. A woman who delivered a healthy newborn 6 hours earlier complains of discomfort at the episiotomy site. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?

• A. Administering an intravenous (IV) opioid analgesic
• B. Assisting the woman in taking a warm sitz bath
• C. Applying an ice pack to the perineum
• D. Contacting the registered nurse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying an ice pack to the perineum is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Ice causes vasoconstriction, providing relief by numbing the area and preventing edema. It is typically used within the first 12 to 24 hours after birth. Assisting the woman in taking a warm sitz bath is more suitable after 24 hours as warm water can be soothing. Administering an IV opioid analgesic is excessive; an anesthetic spray is more appropriate for surface discomfort. Contacting the registered nurse is unnecessary as applying an ice pack is within the nurse's scope and can effectively address the discomfort without escalation.

4. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?

• A. Cranial nerves V and VI
• B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• D. Cranial nerves IX and X

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.

5. Which of the following vaccines is not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?

• A. DTaP
• B. MMR
• C. Hib
• D. hepatitis A

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. DTaP, MMR, and Hib are all part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children to protect them against diseases like diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. Hepatitis A vaccine is not included in the routine childhood immunization schedule but may be recommended in certain situations or regions where the disease is more prevalent. Hepatitis A is generally considered an optional vaccine for children but can be administered based on specific risk factors or regional guidelines.

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