Nursing Elites

1. A pregnant client tells the nurse that she has a 2-year-old child at home and expresses concern about how the toddler will adapt to a newborn infant being brought into the home. Which statement is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the client?

• A. If your 2-year-old becomes angry or jealous, you should consider preparing the child for the new sibling rather than seeking psychological intervention.
• B. Don't worry; every 2-year-old may need time to adjust to a newborn sibling.
• C. Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.
• D. A 2-year-old toddler focuses on exploring the environment, but it's important to prepare the child for the new sibling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is, 'Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.' Toddlers are generally unaware of the changes during pregnancy and may not understand the impending arrival of a new sibling. It is essential to prepare the child gradually for the new baby's arrival by making any necessary changes in sleeping arrangements beforehand. Expecting a young child to immediately welcome a new sibling without prior preparation is unrealistic. Option A is incorrect as suggesting psychological intervention prematurely is not appropriate. Option B is incorrect as assuming all 2-year-olds would immediately welcome a newborn is unrealistic. Option D is incorrect as dismissing the concerns without addressing the need for preparation is not appropriate in this situation.

2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

3. An older client reports that she has been awakening during the night, awakes early in the morning and is unable to fall back to sleep, and feels sleepy during the daytime. Based on these reported data, what should the nurse do?

• A. Encourage the client to consume stimulants such as caffeinated coffee or tea during the daytime hours.
• B. Ask the registered nurse to obtain a prescription for a nighttime sedative.
• C. Report the findings to the registered nurse.
• D. Document the findings in the medical record.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age-related changes in sleep include reduced sleep efficiency, increased incidence of nocturnal awakening, increased incidence of early-morning awakening, and increased daytime sleepiness. Since the reported data are normal age-related changes, the appropriate action for the nurse would be to document the findings in the medical record. Reporting the findings to the registered nurse is unnecessary as these changes are expected with aging and do not indicate a need for immediate intervention. Prescribing sedatives should be avoided as a first-line approach due to potential side effects and risks, especially in older adults. Encouraging the consumption of stimulants like caffeinated beverages during the daytime may further disrupt sleep patterns, which is counterproductive in addressing the client's reported sleep issues.

4. A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?

• A. In the axillary area
• B. At the level of the nipples
• C. Two inches below the nipples
• D. At the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. The average chest circumference is 30.5 to 33 cm (12-13 inches). When there is molding of the head, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth. Placing the tape measure at the level of the nipples ensures accuracy and consistency in newborn assessment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the chest circumference is specifically measured at the level of the nipples to obtain precise measurements.

5. While assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, a nurse percusses the area, and the client complains of sharp pain. The nurse interprets this finding as most indicative of which disorder?

• A. Liver enlargement
• B. Ovarian infection
• C. Spleen enlargement
• D. Kidney inflammation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, sharp pain on percussion of the area indicates inflammation of the kidney or paranephric area. The correct technique involves placing one hand over the 12th rib, at the costovertebral angle, and thumping that hand with the ulnar edge of the other fist. The client normally feels a thud and should not experience pain. Ovarian infection, liver enlargement, or spleen enlargement are not associated with the costovertebral angle tenderness. Therefore, the correct answer is kidney inflammation.

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