a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has a 2 year old child at home and expresses concern about how the toddler will adapt to a newborn infants
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions

1. A pregnant client tells the nurse that she has a 2-year-old child at home and expresses concern about how the toddler will adapt to a newborn infant being brought into the home. Which statement is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is, 'Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.' Toddlers are generally unaware of the changes during pregnancy and may not understand the impending arrival of a new sibling. It is essential to prepare the child gradually for the new baby's arrival by making any necessary changes in sleeping arrangements beforehand. Expecting a young child to immediately welcome a new sibling without prior preparation is unrealistic. Option A is incorrect as suggesting psychological intervention prematurely is not appropriate. Option B is incorrect as assuming all 2-year-olds would immediately welcome a newborn is unrealistic. Option D is incorrect as dismissing the concerns without addressing the need for preparation is not appropriate in this situation.

2. An Rh-negative woman with previous sensitization has delivered an Rh-positive fetus. Which of the following nursing actions should be included in the client's care plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the Rh-negative woman has been sensitized, posing a risk to any Rh-positive fetus she delivers. The most appropriate nursing action is to provide emotional support to help the family cope with the infant's condition. This includes addressing potential outcomes like death or neurological damage. Administering MICRhoGam (Choice B) to a sensitized woman is not recommended; it is only given post-abortion or ectopic pregnancy to prevent sensitization. Rh-immune globulin is not administered to the newborn (Choice C) in this case. Analyzing the maternal Direct Coombs' test (Choice D) is unnecessary; instead, an Indirect Coombs' test is used to assess sensitization. Therefore, the correct nursing action is to offer emotional support to the family, acknowledging the challenges they may face.

3. A client is scheduled to undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement does the nurse make to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.' The Pap test is used to screen for cervical cancer. It is not performed during menstruation or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Before the test, the client should not douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the vagina within 24 hours. Instructing the client to use pads instead of a tampon when menstruating can interfere with the test results due to the presence of blood. Douching before the exam is discouraged as it can alter the cervical cells' appearance, affecting the test's accuracy. Obtaining a sample of vaginal discharge for inspection is not a standard pre-Pap test instruction and is unnecessary for the test.

4. Which reported symptom(s) would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking the action of aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid that causes the retention of sodium and water. Excessive retention of sodium and water can lead to weight gain. Therefore, a sudden increase in weight, especially a significant amount like 6 pounds in one week, can indicate an overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not typically associated with excessive fludrocortisone replacement.

5. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the crucial role that popular and folk domains of influence play in shaping individuals' understanding of health and illness. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, which is the biomedical understanding of health problems, and illness, which is the individual's personal interpretation of their health condition. By focusing on the cultural factors that influence these domains of influence, Kleinman's model underscores the impact of cultural beliefs and practices on health perceptions. Choice A is incorrect because the model goes beyond just family health beliefs. Choice B is more precise as it emphasizes the broader influence of culture. Choice C highlights the correct significance of popular and folk domains of influence, making it the correct choice. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in cultural domains, not educational structure.

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