Nursing Elites

1. A pregnant client tells the nurse that she has a 2-year-old child at home and expresses concern about how the toddler will adapt to a newborn infant being brought into the home. Which statement is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the client?

• A. If your 2-year-old becomes angry or jealous, you should consider preparing the child for the new sibling rather than seeking psychological intervention.
• B. Don't worry; every 2-year-old may need time to adjust to a newborn sibling.
• C. Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.
• D. A 2-year-old toddler focuses on exploring the environment, but it's important to prepare the child for the new sibling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is, 'Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.' Toddlers are generally unaware of the changes during pregnancy and may not understand the impending arrival of a new sibling. It is essential to prepare the child gradually for the new baby's arrival by making any necessary changes in sleeping arrangements beforehand. Expecting a young child to immediately welcome a new sibling without prior preparation is unrealistic. Option A is incorrect as suggesting psychological intervention prematurely is not appropriate. Option B is incorrect as assuming all 2-year-olds would immediately welcome a newborn is unrealistic. Option D is incorrect as dismissing the concerns without addressing the need for preparation is not appropriate in this situation.

2. The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?

• A. nausea
• B. headache
• C. vertigo
• D. tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.

3. When assisting with data collection on language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, what characteristic would a nurse expect?

• A. Is more advanced than expected
• B. Is developing as expected
• C. Is slower than expected
• D. Will require assistance from a speech therapist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing language development in a toddler from a bilingual family, a nurse would expect the child's language development to be slower than expected. Various factors, such as physical maturity and reinforcement received, can influence the pace of language development. Children from bilingual families, twins, and non-firstborn children may exhibit slower language development. Therefore, it is common for the language development of a toddler from a bilingual family to be slower than expected. This characteristic does not necessarily imply a need for speech therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because, in this context, the language development of the child is more likely to be slower than expected rather than more advanced, developing as expected, or requiring speech therapy.

4. The nurse notes that a client in later adulthood has tremors of the hands. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the healthcare provider about referring the client to a neurological specialist.
• B. Obtain a prescription for a muscle relaxant.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes senile tremors, such as intentional tremor of the hands in a client in later adulthood, it is important to document the findings. Senile tremors are benign and a normal age-related occurrence. Referring the client to a neurological specialist (Choice A) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require specialized neurological intervention. Prescribing a muscle relaxant (Choice B) is not indicated since senile tremors are benign and not typically treated with muscle relaxants. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require urgent intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document the findings (Choice D) for the client's medical record and to establish a baseline for future assessments.

5. During a genital examination of a male client, a nurse notices wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. What should the nurse do based on this finding?

• A. Documents the normal finding
• B. Checks for penile discharge, as this indicates infection
• C. Palpates for a mass in the scrotum, as wrinkling suggests the presence of one
• D. Obtains additional subjective data from the client, focusing on the scrotal abnormality

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The penile skin typically appears wrinkled and hairless, without lesions, during a normal examination. Also, the scrotal skin naturally has a wrinkled appearance known as rugae. It is common for the left half of the scrotum to be positioned lower than the right, indicating normal asymmetry. Given these normal variations, the nurse should document the finding of wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. Checking for penile discharge or palpating for a mass in the scrotum is not indicated based on the presence of wrinkled skin, as this is a normal finding. Obtaining additional subjective data focusing on a scrotal abnormality is unnecessary since the wrinkled appearance is typical.

Similar Questions