a client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit which order would the nurse anticipate
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex 2024 Questions

1. A client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit. Which order would the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pancreatitis who frequently experiences nausea and vomiting, insertion of a Levine tube is often anticipated to decompress the stomach and rest the bowel, helping to alleviate symptoms. This intervention is crucial in managing the gastrointestinal symptoms associated with pancreatitis. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes may be necessary in some cases, but it is not a routine order for pancreatitis, making option A less likely. Continuous cardiac monitoring could be required based on the individual's condition, but it is not typically the first priority in pancreatitis management, so option C is not the most anticipated order. While pain medication administration is essential for managing discomfort, the priority in this scenario, especially considering the symptoms of nausea and vomiting, would be decompression with a Levine tube to address gastrointestinal issues, making option D less likely.

2. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

3. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

4. The LPN is teaching a first-time mother about breastfeeding her newborn. Which statement, if made by the mother, would reflect that the teaching had been successful?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, '"My baby should be nursing 8-12 times a day during this period."?' This statement indicates successful teaching because newborns should nurse 8-12 times during the newborn period to ensure they receive adequate nutrition and establish a good milk supply. This frequency helps in meeting the baby's demands for growth and development. Choice A is incorrect because while it mentions the appropriate number of wet diapers a day once the mother's milk comes in, it does not reflect successful teaching about breastfeeding frequency. Choice B is incorrect because it discusses feeding amounts in comparison to formula-fed babies, which is not a direct indicator of successful breastfeeding teaching. Choice D is incorrect because it focuses on the mother's concerns about milk coming in, not on understanding the feeding frequency needed for the newborn.

5. What are the three major sequential maturational crises for females?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The three major sequential maturational crises affecting females are puberty, pregnancy, and menopause. Puberty signifies the beginning of menarche, the first menstrual period. Pregnancy is a transformative experience with long-lasting effects on a woman's life. Menopause marks the end of menstrual cycles. These milestones are well-documented in research and are significant events in a woman's life. Nurses play a vital role in supporting females through these stages. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the recognized sequential maturational crises in a female's life.

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