a client can receive the mumps measles rubella mmr vaccine if he or she
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions

1. A client can receive the mumps, measles, rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold. A simple cold without fever does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine due to the live rubella component, which may lead to birth defects or disease. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine according to the American Academy of Pediatrics.

2. While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.

3. A nurse provides information about feeding to the mother of a 6-month-old infant. Which statement by the mother indicates an understanding of the information?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Egg white should not be given to my infant because of the risk for an allergy.' Egg white, even in small quantities, is not recommended for infants until the end of the first year of life due to its common allergenic potential. Choice A is incorrect because while meats are important for iron, they are not typically introduced to infants until around 6-8 months. Choice C is incorrect because food should never be mixed with formula in the bottle as it may lead to feeding difficulties and inaccurate monitoring of intake. Choice D is incorrect because fluoride supplementation may be required around 6 months depending on the infant's fluoride intake from water. Introducing solid foods like rice cereal, fruits, or vegetables is usually done around 5-6 months, following healthcare provider recommendations.

4. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

5. A woman seeks assistance because she recently remembered childhood sexual abuse. The nurse should include which of the following goals for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'managing symptoms of anxiety and fear.' When a client remembers childhood sexual abuse, the nurse's primary goal should be to help the client cope with the emotional distress and symptoms such as anxiety and fear. Prosecuting the perpetrator is not within the nurse's scope of practice and is a legal matter. Determining if the memories are real is not the nurse's role; the focus should be on providing support and care. Collaborating with the client's story is vague and does not address the immediate emotional needs of the client.

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