NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. A client delivered a term male infant four hours ago. The infant was stillborn. Which room assignment would be most appropriate for this client?
- A. Request a private room on the GYN floor
- B. Assign her to a private room on the postpartum unit
- C. Discharge her home as soon as her condition is stable
- D. Room her with another client who experienced a pregnancy loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate room assignment for the client who delivered a stillborn infant would be to request a private room on the GYN floor. This client needs privacy to grieve, and having a private space allows for family members to offer support. Placing her in a GYN unit ensures that she is away from the maternity unit's sights and sounds, which could be painful reminders for her. Assigning her to a postpartum unit may cause distress due to the presence of other mothers and newborns. Discharging her home too early may not allow her sufficient time for emotional and physical recovery. Rooming her with another client who experienced a pregnancy loss may not provide the necessary privacy and space she needs for her emotional well-being.
2. A 46-year-old has returned from a heart catheterization and wants to get up to start walking 3 hours after the procedure. The nurse should:
- A. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour and check the chart for activity orders.
- B. Allow the patient to begin limited ambulation with assistance.
- C. Recommend a physical therapy consultation for ambulation.
- D. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for another 6 hours and check the chart for activity orders.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour after a heart catheterization before starting ambulation. This period allows for proper healing and reduces the risk of complications such as bleeding or hematoma formation at the catheter insertion site. Starting ambulation too soon can disrupt the healing process and lead to adverse events. Choice B is incorrect because limited ambulation should not be initiated shortly after the procedure as it may increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as physical therapy consultation is not typically necessary for initial ambulation post-heart catheterization; this can be managed by nursing staff. Choice D is incorrect as keeping the leg straight for 6 hours is excessive and unnecessary, potentially leading to complications such as deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged immobility.
3. While undergoing hemodialysis, the client becomes restless and tells the nurse he has a headache and feels nauseous. Which of the following complications does the nurse suspect?
- A. Infection.
- B. Disequilibrium syndrome.
- C. Air embolus.
- D. Infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client undergoing hemodialysis is experiencing symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. These symptoms are indicative of an air embolus, a serious complication that can occur during hemodialysis. Air embolus happens when air enters the bloodstream and can lead to symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. It is crucial for the nurse to suspect and address this complication promptly to prevent further harm to the client. Choices A and D (Infection) are less likely in this case, as the symptoms presented are more suggestive of an air embolus rather than an infection. Choice B (Disequilibrium syndrome) is also less likely as the symptoms described are not typical of this syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Air embolus.
4. A nurse reviews the health history of a client who will be seeing the health care provider to obtain a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive (estrogen and progestin). Which finding in the health history would cause the nurse to determine that the use of a combination oral contraceptive is contraindicated?
- A. The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus.
- B. The client is being treated for hypertension.
- C. The client has been treated for breast cancer.
- D. The client has hyperlipidemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client has been treated for breast cancer. Combination oral contraceptives containing estrogen and progestin are contraindicated for women with a history of certain conditions, such as thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, known or suspected breast cancer, known or suspected estrogen-dependent neoplasm, benign or malignant liver tumors, and undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding. Although having type 2 diabetes mellitus, being treated for hypertension, or having hyperlipidemia are risk factors that require caution when using combination oral contraceptives, they are not absolute contraindications like a history of breast cancer.
5. Which sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID?
- A. Genital herpes.
- B. Trichomoniasis.
- C. Syphilis.
- D. Chlamydia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often be asymptomatic, earning it the nickname 'silent STD.' It is more common than gonorrhea and is a leading cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Genital herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection, not a bacterial STD like chlamydia. Trichomoniasis (Choice B) is a parasitic infection and not commonly associated with causing PID. Syphilis (Choice C) is a bacterial infection but is not as common as chlamydia and is not a leading cause of PID.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access