Nursing Elites

1. Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy most likely correlates to the diagnosis?

• A. She was born at 42 weeks gestation.
• B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old.
• C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery.
• D. She has frequent sore throats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diagnosis of meningitis at age 6 months correlates to a diagnosis of cerebral palsy. Cerebral palsy, a neurological disorder, is often associated with birth trauma or infections of the brain or spinal column. Answers A, C, and D are not related to the question. Gestational length (choice A) is not a direct risk factor for cerebral palsy. Physiologic jaundice (choice C) and frequent sore throats (choice D) are not typically associated with cerebral palsy.

2. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. "You can eat food prepared in a microwave."?
• B. "You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks."?
• C. "You should use your cellphone on your right side."?
• D. "You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

4. The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?

• A. A client with Alzheimer's disease
• B. A client with pneumonia
• C. A client with appendicitis
• D. A client with thrombophlebitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client with Alzheimer's disease is the most stable among the clients listed and can be appropriately assigned to the nursing assistant. Nursing assistants are capable of providing care such as feeding and assisting with activities of daily living for individuals with Alzheimer's disease. Clients with pneumonia, appendicitis, and thrombophlebitis are less stable and necessitate the expertise of a registered nurse for accurate assessment and interventions. Therefore, the nursing assistant can effectively care for the client with Alzheimer's disease while ensuring that the other clients receive the necessary level of care from a registered nurse.

5. Due to a high census, it has been necessary for a number of clients to be transferred to other units within the hospital. Which client should be transferred to the postpartum unit?

• A. A 66-year-old female with gastroenteritis
• B. A 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy
• C. A 27-year-old male with severe depression
• D. A 28-year-old male with ulcerative colitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best client to transfer to the postpartum unit is the 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy. The nurses on the postpartum unit will be knowledgeable about postoperative care and can manage any complications related to the surgery. Choices A and D would be more appropriately cared for on a medical-surgical unit due to their conditions. Choice C should be transferred to a psychiatric unit for specialized care related to severe depression.

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