NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. A home health nurse is making preparations for morning visits. Which one of the following clients should the nurse visit first?
- A. A client with brain attack (stroke) receiving tube feedings
- B. A client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea
- C. A client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago
- D. A client with Parkinson’s disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea should be seen first as airway management is a priority in nursing care. This client's symptoms indicate potential respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Choices A, C, and D involve clients who are more stable and do not present with urgent or acute conditions that require immediate intervention. Choice A with a client receiving tube feedings for a stroke may require attention, but the urgency of addressing potential respiratory distress in choice B takes precedence. Choice C, a client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago, unless presenting with acute distress, does not necessitate immediate attention. Choice D, a client with Parkinson's disease, is usually a chronic condition that does not typically require immediate intervention for the described scenario.
2. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:
- A. Amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses.
- B. Amphetamines have a low risk of tolerance or addiction.
- C. Amphetamines produce a 10-20-second rush followed by a 2-4-hour high.
- D. Addiction to barbiturates and amphetamines is rare because they have opposite effects.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.
3. A woman asks, "How much alcohol can I safely drink while pregnant?"? The nurse's best response is:
- A. "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."?
- B. "Consuming one or two beers or glasses of wine a day is considered safe for a healthy pregnant woman."?
- C. "Drinking three or more drinks on any given occasion is the only harmful type of drinking during pregnancy."?
- D. "You can have a drink to help you relax and get to sleep at night."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, "The amount of alcohol that is safe during pregnancy is unknown."? This response is appropriate because there is no known safe amount of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Consuming any amount of alcohol during pregnancy can pose risks to the developing fetus, leading to conditions like fetal alcohol syndrome, which is a combination of mental and physical abnormalities in infants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests that consuming one or two drinks a day is safe during pregnancy, which is not supported by current medical guidelines. Choice C incorrectly states that only drinking three or more drinks on any given occasion is harmful, when in reality, any amount of alcohol can be harmful to the fetus. Choice D is inappropriate as it suggests that having a drink to relax and sleep is acceptable during pregnancy, which is not the case.
4. While assessing a client who is dying for signs of impending death, what should the nurse observe for?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
- C. Elevated pulse rate
- D. Decreased temperature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of impending death, the nurse should observe for Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern involves rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep breathing to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. It is often associated with cardiac failure and can be a significant indicator of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typical signs of impending death; in fact, they may indicate other conditions. A decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death, as temperature changes can vary among individuals and may not always correlate with the dying process.
5. Which of the following coping mechanisms protects an individual from anxiety?
- A. denial and fantasy
- B. rationalization and suppression
- C. regression and displacement
- D. reaction formation and projection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'denial and fantasy.' Denial involves blocking external events from awareness to avoid anxiety, while fantasy is escaping to a more comfortable, less threatening place. These mechanisms can protect individuals from anxiety by providing temporary relief or distraction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rationalization and suppression do not directly protect individuals from anxiety. Regression and displacement involve reverting to earlier developmental stages or redirecting emotions to a substitute target, which do not directly shield individuals from anxiety. Reaction formation and projection entail behaving in the opposite way to one's impulses or attributing one's feelings to others respectively, which do not directly protect individuals from anxiety.
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