Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to telemetry with a diagnosis of diabetes at 3pm. At 10pm, the client is unresponsive. BP is 98/64, Resp 38, HR 100, T 97. The nurse notes a fruity smell on the client's breath. The nurse recognizes that the client is in which acid-base imbalance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Based on the client's unresponsiveness, fruity breath smell, and the presence of diabetes, the nurse can infer that the client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a complication of diabetes characterized by the accumulation of ketones in the body, leading to metabolic acidosis. The fruity breath smell is due to the presence of ketones. Therefore, the correct acid-base imbalance in this scenario is metabolic acidosis. Choice A, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect because the scenario does not provide evidence of primary respiratory dysfunction. Choice B, respiratory alkalosis, is incorrect as the client's condition does not align with the typical causes and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis. Choice D, metabolic alkalosis, is incorrect as the symptoms and history provided do not suggest a state of metabolic alkalosis.

2. When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, what precaution should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously.
• B. Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.
• C. Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.
• D. Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering intravenous electrolyte solutions, preventing the infiltration of calcium is crucial to avoid tissue necrosis and sloughing, making choice C the correct answer. Choice A is revised to 'Infuse hypertonic solutions cautiously' because hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is corrected to 'Mix no more than 60 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid' as exceeding this limit can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is modified to 'Monitor the client's digitalis dosage for adjustments due to IV calcium' as it is essential to monitor the digitalis dosage for potential adjustments when IV calcium is administered; however, this choice is incorrect here as it inaccurately suggests adjusting the digitalis dosage due to IV calcium, which could lead to harmful effects.

3. A client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid which of the following foods?

• A. lettuce
• B. cheese
• C. apples
• D. broccoli

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid foods high in calcium to prevent the formation of more stones. Cheese is high in calcium, so it should be avoided. Lettuce, apples, and broccoli are not typically associated with high calcium content and are safe options for individuals with urinary tract calculi. Therefore, the correct answer is cheese. Choices A, C, and D are not high in calcium and are safe for consumption by individuals with urinary tract calculi.

4. During a petit mal seizure in the clinic, what should be the highest priority?

• A. Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
• B. Call a code
• C. Contact the patient's physician
• D. Prevent excessive movement of the extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a petit mal seizure, the highest priority is to provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area. This action aims to prevent injuries to the patient during the seizure. While calling a code or contacting the patient's physician may be necessary at some point, immediate safety measures take precedence. Preventing excessive movement of the extremities is relevant but ensuring a safe environment is crucial to avoid harm during the seizure.

5. A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Weakness and SOB
• B. Fever and anemia
• C. Hypertension and SOB
• D. Fever and hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and anemia.' Zidovudine (Retrovir) is known to cause anemia as a side effect due to its impact on the bone marrow. Fever is also a common side effect associated with Zidovudine use. Therefore, the patient should watch out for these specific side effects. Choice A (Weakness and SOB) is incorrect as shortness of breath (SOB) is not a commonly reported side effect of Zidovudine. Choice C (Hypertension and SOB) and Choice D (Fever and hypertension) are unrelated to the known side effects of Zidovudine, making them incorrect.

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