Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider should utilize data about which of the following to provide information about the nutritional status of a client being evaluated for malnutrition?

• A. triceps skinfold measurement
• B. fasting blood glucose level
• C. hemoglobin A1c level
• D. serum lipid profile results

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Objective anthropometric measurements such as triceps skinfold and mid-arm circumference (MAC), along with weight, are usually used to diagnose malnutrition. Triceps skinfold measurement specifically helps assess body fat and muscle mass, providing valuable information about the client's nutritional status. Fasting blood glucose level, hemoglobin A1c level, and serum lipid profile results are important tests in assessing different aspects of health such as diabetes management and cardiovascular risk, but they are not specific indicators of malnutrition.

2. A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?

• A. Stage I pressure ulcer
• B. Stage II pressure ulcer
• C. Stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema with the skin intact is characteristic of a Stage I pressure ulcer. At this stage, the skin is not broken, but there is localized redness that does not blanch when pressed. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss, Stage III pressure ulcers have full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV pressure ulcers extend to deeper tissues, including muscle and bone. In this case, the non-blanchable erythema with intact skin aligns with the characteristics of a Stage I pressure ulcer.

3. With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?

• A. quickening
• B. ophthalmia neonatorum
• C. pica
• D. prolapsed umbilical cord

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Prolapsed umbilical cord is a critical emergency situation where the umbilical cord descends into the vagina before the fetal presenting part, leading to compression between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis. This compression can compromise or completely cut off fetoplacental perfusion, endangering the fetus. Immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Quickening refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, ophthalmia neonatorum is an eye infection in newborns, and pica is a condition characterized by cravings for non-nutritive substances, none of which are directly related to the risks associated with a breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

4. In conducting a community health fair for a group of middle-aged citizens, which statement should the nurse emphasize in reducing the risk of coronary heart disease?

• A. Participate in at least 30 minutes of moderate physical activity 3 to 5 days per week.
• B. Engage in an aerobic exercise class every day.
• C. Limit your alcohol intake to a moderate level.
• D. The best way to lose weight is to follow a balanced diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in an aerobic exercise class every day is crucial in reducing the risk of coronary heart disease. Aerobic exercises help keep the heart in shape, lower blood pressure, and improve cholesterol levels. It is recommended to participate in at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic exercise per week, which can be achieved by engaging in aerobic exercise daily. Choice A has been corrected to emphasize the frequency required to significantly reduce the risk of coronary heart disease. Choice C has been modified to suggest moderation in alcohol intake, as excessive alcohol consumption is harmful. Choice D is also incorrect as a balanced diet, not specifically high-protein, high-fat, is recommended to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease and maintain a healthy weight.

5. A client receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis requires careful observation and care. In planning care for this client, the nurse should recognize that which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to occur?

• A. hyperkalemia
• B. hypernatremia
• C. hypokalemia
• D. hypomagnesemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis, the nurse should anticipate the development of hypokalemia due to the potassium-wasting effects of furosemide. Hypokalemia can potentiate digitalis toxicity. While hyperkalemia is a concern with some medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide and digitalis. Furosemide can lead to hyponatremia, not hypernatremia, due to its diuretic effect. Hypomagnesemia, though a possible imbalance, is not the most likely to occur in this scenario as furosemide and digitalis are more commonly associated with hypokalemia.

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