NCLEX NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider should utilize data about which of the following to provide information about the nutritional status of a client being evaluated for malnutrition?
- A. triceps skinfold measurement
- B. fasting blood glucose level
- C. hemoglobin A1c level
- D. serum lipid profile results
Correct answer: triceps skinfold measurement
Rationale: Objective anthropometric measurements such as triceps skinfold and mid-arm circumference (MAC), along with weight, are usually used to diagnose malnutrition. Triceps skinfold measurement specifically helps assess body fat and muscle mass, providing valuable information about the client's nutritional status. Fasting blood glucose level, hemoglobin A1c level, and serum lipid profile results are important tests in assessing different aspects of health such as diabetes management and cardiovascular risk, but they are not specific indicators of malnutrition.
2. The advanced directive in a client’s chart is dated August 12, 1998. The client’s daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care directions. What should the nurse do?
- A. Follow the 1998 version because it’s part of the legal chart.
- B. Follow the 1998 version because the physician’s code order is based on it.
- C. Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
- D. Follow neither until clarified by the unit manager.
Correct answer: Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
Rationale: The document dated 2003 supersedes the previous version and should be used as a basis for care directions. The nurse should follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately to ensure that the most current care directions are followed. Choices A and B are incorrect because the 1998 version is now outdated, and the nurse should not rely on it for care decisions. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not delay following the updated document, and seeking clarification from the unit manager can lead to avoidable delays in care.
3. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
- B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
- C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
- D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon’s responsibility to explain the procedure
Correct answer: Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client’s legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client’s part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.
4. In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?
- A. COPD client with a non-productive cough
- B. Diabetic client who has an infected sore on the foot
- C. Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
- D. Client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint
Correct answer: Client with adrenal insufficiency who feels weak
Rationale: In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.
5. Which task should not be performed by the licensed practical nurse?
- A. Inserting a Foley catheter
- B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
- C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
- D. Initiating a blood transfusion
Correct answer: Initiating a blood transfusion
Rationale: A licensed practical nurse should not initiate a blood transfusion. LPNs can assist with transfusions and verify ID numbers but should not be assigned to initiate the procedure. Inserting Foley catheters, discontinuing nasogastric tubes, and obtaining sputum specimens are within the scope of practice for LPNs. Therefore, options A, B, and C are tasks that LPNs can perform, making them incorrect choices.
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