Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for a client with insomnia?

• A. Ineffective breathing pattern
• B. Disturbed sensory perception
• C. Ineffective coping
• D. Sleep deprivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Ineffective breathing pattern.' When a client presents with insomnia, assessing for underlying causes is crucial. Sleep apnea, an airway issue, may be a contributing factor to the client's insomnia, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the priority. 'Disturbed sensory perception' focuses on alterations in touch, taste, or vision, which are not directly related to insomnia. 'Ineffective coping' addresses a client's inability to manage stress, which, although important, is not the priority in this case. 'Sleep deprivation' is a consequence of insomnia rather than a primary nursing diagnosis.

2. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?

• A. Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress.
• B. Take the iron with meals if GI distress occurs.
• C. Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel.
• D. Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron. Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress. Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel. Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.

3. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

4. Because of the possible nervous system side-effects that occur with isoniazid (Nydrazid) therapy, which supplementary nutritional agent would the nurse teach the client to take as a prophylaxis?

• A. Alpha tocopherol (vitamin E)
• B. Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
• C. Calcitriol (vitamin D)
• D. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyridoxine is the correct choice in this scenario because it is used as a prophylaxis to prevent neuritis, a possible nervous system side-effect of isoniazid therapy. Neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the nerves and can be a side effect of isoniazid. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, helps prevent this side effect. Vitamin E (Alpha tocopherol), vitamin C (Ascorbic acid), and vitamin D (Calcitriol) do not specifically address the nervous system side-effects associated with isoniazid therapy, making them incorrect choices.

5. A nurse is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the nurse's immediate attention and phone call?

• A. An 8-year-old boy has been vomiting, appears to have slower movements, and has a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement.
• B. A 10-year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in gym class.
• C. A 7-year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3 days and has a history of an anterior knee wound.
• D. A 7-year-old girl who had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of itching.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 8-year-old boy with vomiting, slower movements, and a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement. This report requires immediate attention because the symptoms could indicate a blocked shunt, which is a serious medical condition needing urgent evaluation and intervention. Slower movements in the context of an atrioventricular shunt history could suggest increased intracranial pressure. The other choices involve less urgent issues: choice B describes post-exercise pain, choice C presents with a low-grade fever and headache that could be due to a mild infection, and choice D reports itching associated with a cast, which is a common issue and less critical compared to a potentially blocked shunt.

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