Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is weighing a breastfed 6-month-old infant who has been brought to the pediatrician's office for a scheduled visit. The infant's weight at birth was 6 lb 8 oz. The nurse notes that the infant now weighs 13 lb. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the mother to decrease the daily number of feedings because the weight gain is excessive.
• B. Tell the mother that the infant's weight is increasing as expected.
• C. Tell the mother that the infant should continue with breast milk as the weight gain is adequate.
• D. Tell the mother that semisolid foods should not be introduced until the infant's weight stabilizes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the mother that the infant's weight gain is normal. Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months, which is precisely the case here, with the infant's weight increasing from 6 lb 8 oz to 13 lb. This weight gain indicates healthy growth and development. Therefore, there is no need to decrease feedings. The infant should continue with breast milk as it is providing adequate nutrition. Additionally, introducing semisolid foods is usually recommended between 4 and 6 months of age, so there is no indication to delay based on the infant's weight gain.

2. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:

• A. is given after the D10W is finished.
• B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
• C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
• D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

3. A client had a Caesarean delivery and is postpartum day 1. She asks for pain medication when the nurse enters the room to do her shift assessment. The client states that her pain level is an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. What should be the nurse's priority of care?

• A. Give the pain medication and return in an hour for further assessment to allow time for the medication to work.
• B. Complete the postpartum assessment and then give the client pain medication.
• C. Give the pain medication first, do a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure the pain is not caused by a complication, and return for the full assessment after the client's pain has subsided.
• D. Instruct the patient to do relaxation exercises to relieve her discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pain management is a priority, so the nurse should immediately provide pain medication. However, the nurse should conduct a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure that a complication, such as hemorrhage, hasn't caused the increased pain. A complete assessment can wait until the pain subsides. Controlling pain will enable the client to move, eliminating other potential complications of delivery and facilitating bonding with the infant. Relaxation techniques can act as an adjunct therapy but by themselves are not usually effective for pain management during the early post-Caesarean period.

4. Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:

• A. inspection for visible pulsations.
• B. palpation of thrill.
• C. percussion for dullness.
• D. auscultation of blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate for a thrill. A thrill should be present in a functioning arteriovenous fistula (AVF) and indicates good blood flow. The client should be educated to check for this sensation daily at home to monitor the AVF's patency. Visible pulsations are not typically observed in an AVF. Percussion for dullness does not provide relevant information about the AVF. Auscultation of blood pressure is not a standard practice in assessing an AVF. However, auscultation of the AVF for a bruit, a sound indicating turbulent blood flow, is crucial in evaluating the AVF's patency.

5. A 55-year-old female asks a nurse the following, “Which mineral/vitamin is the most important to prevent the progression of osteoporosis?” The nurse should state:

• A. Potassium
• B. Magnesium
• C. Calcium
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium. Calcium is essential for maintaining bone health and is crucial in preventing osteoporosis. Adequate calcium intake, along with vitamin D, is vital for bone strength. While other minerals and vitamins are also important for overall health, in the context of preventing osteoporosis, calcium plays a primary role. Potassium (Choice A), Magnesium (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice D) are important for various bodily functions but are not as directly linked to preventing osteoporosis as calcium.

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