a female prostitute enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease this disease is the most prevalent std in the united states the nu a female prostitute enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease this disease is the most prevalent std in the united states the nu
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. A female sex worker enters a clinic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease. This disease is the most prevalent STD in the United States. The nurse can anticipate that the woman has which of the following?

Correct answer: chlamydia

Rationale: The question describes a female sex worker seeking treatment for the most prevalent sexually transmitted disease in the United States. Chlamydia is the correct answer as it is the most common STD in the country according to epidemiological studies. While herpes (choice A) is common, it is not the most prevalent. Gonorrhea (choice C) and syphilis (choice D) are less prevalent compared to chlamydia, making them incorrect choices.

2. What happens if folic acid is administered to treat anemia without determining its underlying cause?

Correct answer: The symptoms of pernicious anemia might be masked, delaying treatment

Rationale: When folic acid is given without determining the underlying cause of anemia, the symptoms of pernicious anemia may be masked, potentially delaying the correct treatment. Folic acid alone does not protect against the central nervous system changes seen in pernicious anemia, which are related to Vitamin B12 deficiency. Folic acid and Vitamin B12 are both crucial for cell growth and division. Administering folic acid without knowing the specific type of anemia could lead to a delay in addressing the root cause. Option A is incorrect because folic acid is essential for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. Option B is incorrect as excessive folic acid can cause toxicity, but it is not the primary concern in this context. Option D is incorrect because folic acid treatment for anemia does not directly impact intrinsic factor, which is related to Vitamin B12 absorption.

3. A client with cancer is transported to the radiology department for a bone scan to determine whether the cancer has metastasized to bone. While the client is in the radiology department, the client’s wife arrives for a visit and asks what test is being performed on the client. What should the nurse tell the wife?

Correct answer: She will have to discuss the prescribed test with the client.

Rationale: In healthcare, confidentiality is crucial. Without the client's consent, nurses cannot disclose confidential information to anyone else, even to family members. Therefore, the appropriate response is to inform the client's wife that she will have to discuss the test with the client directly. It is not appropriate to disclose sensitive medical information without the client's permission. Offering the wife to read the medical record is a violation of privacy and confidentiality. Indicating that the radiology department is unclear about the prescribed test is inaccurate and does not uphold confidentiality. Moreover, it is not the responsibility of another department to disclose medical information; it is the duty of the healthcare provider and the client to discuss such matters.

4. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?

Correct answer: 60 drops per milliliter

Rationale: A microdrop set delivers 60 drops per milliliter of IV fluid. This allows for a more precise control of the infusion rate. The correct choice is B because it provides the desired microdrop rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A delivers 15 drops per milliliter, which is a macrodrop set. C delivers 20 drops per milliliter, also a macrodrop set. D delivers 10 drops per milliliter, another macrodrop set. Therefore, the correct choice for a microdrop set is B.

5. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

Correct answer: Notify the physician

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

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