a nurse reviews the health history of a client who will be seeing the health care provider to obtain a prescription for a combination oral contracepti
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. A nurse reviews the health history of a client who will be seeing the health care provider to obtain a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive (estrogen and progestin). Which finding in the health history would cause the nurse to determine that the use of a combination oral contraceptive is contraindicated?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client has been treated for breast cancer. Combination oral contraceptives containing estrogen and progestin are contraindicated for women with a history of certain conditions, such as thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, known or suspected breast cancer, known or suspected estrogen-dependent neoplasm, benign or malignant liver tumors, and undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding. Although having type 2 diabetes mellitus, being treated for hypertension, or having hyperlipidemia are risk factors that require caution when using combination oral contraceptives, they are not absolute contraindications like a history of breast cancer.

2. A client arrives in the emergency department after severely lacerating the left hand with a knife. HR 96, BP 150/88, R36. The client is extremely anxious and crying uncontrollably. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates that this client would be in which acid-base imbalance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation due to anxiety, pain, shock, severe infection, fever, or liver failure can lead to respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is extremely anxious and crying uncontrollably, indicating an increased respiratory rate and CO2 loss. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is incorrect as it is characterized by an increase in CO2 levels, not a loss. Metabolic acidosis (choice C) involves a decrease in blood pH due to an accumulation of acids or loss of bicarbonate, which is not the case here. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) results from excess bicarbonate or a loss of acids, not from increased CO2 loss due to hyperventilation.

3. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

4. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron. Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress. Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel. Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.

5. The nurse is checking laboratory values on a patient who has crackling rales in the lower lobes, 2+ pitting edema, and dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which of the following laboratory values does the nurse expect to be abnormal?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest heart failure. BNP is a neurohormone released from the ventricles due to increased pressure and stretch, as seen in heart failure. A BNP level greater than 51 pg/mL is often associated with mild heart failure, with higher levels indicating more severe heart failure. Potassium levels are not typically affected by heart failure. CRP is an inflammation indicator used to predict coronary artery disease risk, not directly related to heart failure in this case. The client's symptoms do not suggest bleeding or clotting abnormalities associated with platelet count issues, making platelets an unlikely abnormal value.

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