NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A nurse reviews the health history of a client who will be seeing the health care provider to obtain a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive (estrogen and progestin). Which finding in the health history would cause the nurse to determine that the use of a combination oral contraceptive is contraindicated?
- A. The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus.
- B. The client is being treated for hypertension.
- C. The client has been treated for breast cancer.
- D. The client has hyperlipidemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client has been treated for breast cancer. Combination oral contraceptives containing estrogen and progestin are contraindicated for women with a history of certain conditions, such as thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, known or suspected breast cancer, known or suspected estrogen-dependent neoplasm, benign or malignant liver tumors, and undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding. Although having type 2 diabetes mellitus, being treated for hypertension, or having hyperlipidemia are risk factors that require caution when using combination oral contraceptives, they are not absolute contraindications like a history of breast cancer.
2. What is the best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy?
- A. Fowler's
- B. Modified Sims
- C. Side lying
- D. Flat supine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy is side lying. This position promotes comfort with the knees flexed and ensures proper airway management. Fowler's position (Choice A) would not be ideal as it involves sitting at a 90-degree angle, potentially causing discomfort after this procedure. Modified Sims position (Choice B) is typically used for rectal examinations, not for post-surgical management. Flat supine (Choice D) may not be the best choice immediately after surgery as it does not provide the same level of comfort and airway protection as side lying with knees flexed.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What is the most likely electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hypomagnesemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where the client experiences severe nausea and vomiting, the most likely electrolyte imbalance is hypokalemia. Potassium is abundant in the stomach, and excessive vomiting leads to potassium loss. Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Hypomagnesemia (Choice B) and Hyponatremia (Choice C) are less likely to occur compared to hypokalemia in this condition.
4. During a home health visit, a nurse consults with a male patient diagnosed with CAD and COPD who is taking Ventolin, Azmacort, Aspirin, and Theophylline and complains of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort. What should the nurse do?
- A. Contact the patient's physician immediately
- B. Recommend the patient lie on his right side
- C. Advise the patient to schedule a doctor's visit the next day
- D. Suggest holding the drug Azmacort
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the patient's physician immediately. The patient's symptoms of upset stomach, nausea, and discomfort could indicate theophylline toxicity, a potentially serious condition. It is crucial to consult the physician promptly to address this issue. Option B, recommending the patient lie on his right side, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and is not a priority. Option C, advising the patient to schedule a doctor's visit the next day, is inappropriate as the symptoms may indicate an urgent concern. Option D, suggesting holding the drug Azmacort, is incorrect as it does not address the potential theophylline toxicity and should not be done without consulting the physician first.
5. When encountering the significant other of a patient with end-stage AIDS crying during her smoke break, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Allow her to grieve by herself.
- B. Tell her to go ahead and cry, after all, your husband’s pretty bad off.
- C. Tell her you realize how upset she is, but you don’t want to talk about it now.
- D. Approach her, offering tissues, and encourage her to verbalize her feelings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Approaching the significant other, offering tissues, and encouraging her to verbalize her feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. Being left alone during the grief process isolates individuals, and they need an outlet for their feelings. By showing empathy and providing support, the nurse can help the significant other cope with her emotions. Choices A, B, and C are inappropriate because they do not offer support or encourage the expression of feelings, which are crucial in such situations.
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