Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reviews the health history of a client who will be seeing the health care provider to obtain a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive (estrogen and progestin). Which finding in the health history would cause the nurse to determine that the use of a combination oral contraceptive is contraindicated?

• A. The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus.
• B. The client is being treated for hypertension.
• C. The client has been treated for breast cancer.
• D. The client has hyperlipidemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client has been treated for breast cancer. Combination oral contraceptives containing estrogen and progestin are contraindicated for women with a history of certain conditions, such as thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, known or suspected breast cancer, known or suspected estrogen-dependent neoplasm, benign or malignant liver tumors, and undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding. Although having type 2 diabetes mellitus, being treated for hypertension, or having hyperlipidemia are risk factors that require caution when using combination oral contraceptives, they are not absolute contraindications like a history of breast cancer.

2. What should the nurse do while caring for a client with an eating disorder?

• A. Encourage the client to cook for others
• B. Weigh the client daily and keep a journal
• C. Restrict access to mirrors
• D. Monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals. This is crucial in caring for a client with an eating disorder as it helps in assessing any immediate risks related to the disorder. Option A is incorrect as it may trigger additional stress for the client and distract from the main focus of managing the disorder. Option B, weighing the client daily, could lead to an unhealthy focus on weight and potentially worsen the client's mental health. Option C, restricting access to mirrors, although it may be beneficial for body image concerns, does not directly address the core issue of monitoring food intake and behavior, which is essential in managing eating disorders.

3. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
• B. Hold medications and notify the physician
• C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
• D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.

4. A patient has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is not a clinical sign of diabetes mellitus?

• A. Polyphagia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Lower extremity edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyphagia, polyuria, and metabolic acidosis are common clinical signs of diabetes mellitus. Polyphagia refers to excessive hunger, polyuria is excessive urination, and metabolic acidosis can occur due to poorly controlled diabetes. Lower extremity edema, on the other hand, is not a typical clinical sign of diabetes mellitus. Edema in the lower extremities is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease rather than diabetes mellitus.

5. A patient has been ordered to receive Klonopin for the first time. Which of the following side effects is not associated with Klonopin?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Ataxia
• C. Salivation elevation
• D. Diplopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diplopia.' While drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation are common side effects associated with Klonopin, diplopia is not typically linked to this medication. Diplopia, or double vision, is not a common side effect reported with the use of Klonopin. It is important to monitor patients for the known side effects such as drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation when administering Klonopin. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect as they are known side effects of Klonopin, unlike diplopia which is not commonly observed with this medication.

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