NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and complains of swollen hands and feet. Which symptom below would cause the greatest concern?
- A. Nasal congestion
- B. Hiccups
- C. Blood glucose of 150
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is muscle spasms because they can be indicative of a severe condition like preeclampsia, which is a serious complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. Nasal congestion and hiccups are common discomforts during pregnancy and do not pose a severe risk to the client or fetus. A blood glucose level of 150, while slightly elevated, may not be alarming in a pregnant individual and can be managed through dietary modifications or medication adjustments. Muscle spasms, especially in the context of pregnancy, should be taken seriously and thoroughly assessed to rule out any underlying serious conditions.
2. When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?
- A. cool, clammy skin
- B. bradycardia
- C. tachycardia
- D. eupnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client has early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as in a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen delivery to tissues. Cool, clammy skin (choice A) is more indicative of impaired oxygen perfusion compared to warm, dry skin. Bradycardia (choice B) is less likely to occur in the early stages and is more common in severe cases. Eupnea (choice D) refers to normal respirations in rate and depth, which may not be altered in early impairment of oxygen perfusion.
3. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?
- A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
- B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
- C. Ask the patient, "What is making you mad?"?
- D. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?"?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.
4. One of the major functions of the kidneys in maintaining normal fluid balance is:
- A. the manufacture of antidiuretic hormone.
- B. the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance.
- C. the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.
- D. the control of aldosterone levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the regulation of the pH of the extracellular fluid.' The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining normal fluid balance by regulating extracellular fluid and osmolarity through selective retention and excretion of fluids. Additionally, they regulate the pH of the extracellular fluid by retaining hydrogen ions and excreting metabolic wastes and toxic substances. Choice A is incorrect because antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is manufactured by the pituitary gland, not the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as the regulation of calcium and phosphate balance is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland. Choice D is incorrect as aldosterone levels are controlled by the adrenal glands, not the kidneys.
5. Which reported symptom would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?
- A. Oily skin and hair
- B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
- C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
- D. Increased blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking aldosterone to retain sodium and water. This retention can lead to weight gain due to increased fluid retention. Rapid weight gain, such as 6 pounds in one week, is a concerning sign of excessive fluid retention, indicating a potential overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not specific symptoms of excessive fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access