Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?

• A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
• B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
• C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
• D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.

2. A patient has experienced a severe third-degree burn to the trunk in the last 36 hours. Which phase of burn management is the patient in?

• A. Shock phase
• B. Emergent phase
• C. Healing phase
• D. Wound proliferation phase

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shock phase. The shock phase occurs within the first 24-48 hours of burn management. During this phase, the focus is on stabilization, fluid resuscitation, and monitoring for potential complications. Choice B, the Emergent phase, is incorrect as it refers to the initial phase of burn care immediately after the injury. Choice C, the Healing phase, occurs later in the treatment process when the wound starts to repair itself. Choice D, the Wound proliferation phase, is not a recognized phase in burn management.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's current Lithium levels. Which of the following values is outside the therapeutic range?

• A. 1.0 mEq/L
• B. 1.1 mEq/L
• C. 1.2 mEq/L
• D. 1.3 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 1.3 mEq/L. The therapeutic range for Lithium levels typically falls between 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. Values below or above this range can lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes or toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are within the therapeutic range of 1.0-1.2 mEq/L, making them appropriate levels for patient care.

4. A 15-year-old high school wrestler has been taking diuretics to lose weight to compete in a lower weight class. Which of the following medical tests is most likely to be given?

• A. Lab values of Potassium and Sodium
• B. Lab values of Glucose and Hemoglobin
• C. ECG
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diuretics can disrupt the sodium and potassium balance, potentially leading to cardiac complications. Monitoring the lab values of potassium and sodium is crucial to assess electrolyte imbalances due to diuretic use. Testing glucose and hemoglobin levels is not directly related to diuretic use in this context. An ECG would be indicated if there were signs or symptoms of cardiac abnormalities, but it is not the primary test to monitor the effects of diuretics. A CT scan is not typically used to assess electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics.

5. What is the best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

• A. platelet count
• B. prothrombin time (PT)
• C. partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. D-dimer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the D-dimer test. In DIC, numerous small clots form throughout the body and are rapidly broken down. D-dimer measures a specific fibrin split product and is the most specific test for DIC. Platelet count (Choice A) is decreased in DIC due to consumption, but it is not specific for diagnosing DIC. Prothrombin time (PT - Choice B) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT - Choice C) are both elevated in DIC because clotting factors have been used up, but they are not specific for DIC as they can be elevated in other conditions as well.

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