Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?

• A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
• B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
• C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
• D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.

2. When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize:

• A. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance.
• B. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent opportunistic infection.
• C. Therapy should not be interrupted for one day each month to prevent toxicity.
• D. Therapy should not be interrupted for one week every three months to prevent toxicity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for HIV, it is crucial to emphasize that therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance. HIV mutates rapidly, and any interruption can lead to the emergence of resistant strains, compromising treatment effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the virus in check with anti-retrovirals helps the client's immune system fight off opportunistic infections. Choices C and D are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If toxicity occurs, the healthcare provider may adjust the treatment regimen by prescribing alternative anti-retroviral drugs.

3. What should the nurse do while caring for a client with an eating disorder?

• A. Encourage the client to cook for others
• B. Weigh the client daily and keep a journal
• C. Restrict access to mirrors
• D. Monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals. This is crucial in caring for a client with an eating disorder as it helps in assessing any immediate risks related to the disorder. Option A is incorrect as it may trigger additional stress for the client and distract from the main focus of managing the disorder. Option B, weighing the client daily, could lead to an unhealthy focus on weight and potentially worsen the client's mental health. Option C, restricting access to mirrors, although it may be beneficial for body image concerns, does not directly address the core issue of monitoring food intake and behavior, which is essential in managing eating disorders.

4. Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?

• A. The hematocrit is adversely affected due to increased vascular volume.
• B. AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia as a side effect.
• C. AEDs may cause aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.
• D. Some AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is being treated with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), it is essential to monitor for potential side effects on blood parameters. Some AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia, which includes conditions like aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, drawing a complete blood count and differential helps in identifying these adverse effects early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern when monitoring blood parameters in clients on AEDs is the risk of blood dyscrasia, not changes in hematocrit due to vascular volume, white blood cell reduction, or immune modulation.

5. When giving an intramuscular injection to an infant, which of the following sites is preferred?

• A. Ventrogluteal region
• B. Deltoid
• C. Vastus lateralis
• D. Dorsogluteal region

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the Vastus lateralis when giving an intramuscular injection to an infant. The Vastus lateralis muscle, located in the thigh, is the preferred site for infants as it has a larger muscle mass and is well-developed, making it suitable for injections. The Ventrogluteal region and Dorsogluteal region are not recommended for infants due to their smaller muscle mass and potential risk of damaging nearby structures. The Deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults, not infants.

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