Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?

• A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
• B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
• C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
• D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.

2. A nurse is weighing a breastfed 6-month-old infant who has been brought to the pediatrician's office for a scheduled visit. The infant's weight at birth was 6 lb 8 oz. The nurse notes that the infant now weighs 13 lb. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the mother to decrease the daily number of feedings because the weight gain is excessive.
• B. Tell the mother that the infant's weight is increasing as expected.
• C. Tell the mother that the infant should continue with breast milk as the weight gain is adequate.
• D. Tell the mother that semisolid foods should not be introduced until the infant's weight stabilizes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the mother that the infant's weight gain is normal. Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months, which is precisely the case here, with the infant's weight increasing from 6 lb 8 oz to 13 lb. This weight gain indicates healthy growth and development. Therefore, there is no need to decrease feedings. The infant should continue with breast milk as it is providing adequate nutrition. Additionally, introducing semisolid foods is usually recommended between 4 and 6 months of age, so there is no indication to delay based on the infant's weight gain.

3. The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a closed chest wound. Which assessment finding is consistent with a flail chest?

• A. Biot's respirations
• B. Sucking sounds during respirations
• C. Paradoxical chest wall movement
• D. Hypotension and bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct assessment finding consistent with a flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration. Biot's respirations (Choice A) are a pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Sucking sounds during respirations (Choice B) may indicate air entering or leaving the chest cavity through a wound. Hypotension and bradycardia (Choice D) may be present due to other factors such as shock, but they are not specific to a flail chest.

4. A healthcare professional is screening patients for immunizations. Which of the following is not a contraindication for immunization?

• A. Seizures
• B. Fever lasting more than 3 days
• C. Malignancy within the past 3 months
• D. Illness lasting more than 6 months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Illness lasting more than 6 months.' Chronic conditions lasting more than 6 months are not considered a contraindication for immunization. Choice A, 'Seizures,' can be a contraindication in certain situations, especially if linked to a specific vaccine component. Choice B, 'Fever lasting more than 3 days,' can be a temporary precaution but not a general contraindication. Choice C, 'Malignancy within the past 3 months,' is a contraindication due to the compromised immune system in cancer patients.

5. The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:

• A. prednisone (Colisone)
• B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• C. indomethacin (Indocin)
• D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is allopurinol (Zyloprim) as it is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that decreases uric acid formation. Allopurinol is commonly used to manage gout by lowering uric acid levels. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to decrease inflammation, not to lower uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, but it is not the drug of choice for lowering uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and edema, not to decrease uric acid levels.

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