Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?

• A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
• B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
• C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
• D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.

2. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SAO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

• A. tuberculosis (TB)
• B. pneumonia
• C. pleural effusion
• D. hypoxia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SAO2 indicates hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low because hypoxia stimulates hyperventilation, but the best analysis in this case is hypoxia due to the combination of low PO2 and low SAO2.

3. With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for which of the following?

• A. quickening
• B. ophthalmia neonatorum
• C. pica
• D. prolapsed umbilical cord

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a breech presentation, the nurse must be particularly alert for a prolapsed umbilical cord. Prolapsed umbilical cord is a critical emergency situation where the umbilical cord descends into the vagina before the fetal presenting part, leading to compression between the presenting part and the maternal pelvis. This compression can compromise or completely cut off fetoplacental perfusion, endangering the fetus. Immediate delivery should be attempted to save the fetus. Quickening refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, ophthalmia neonatorum is an eye infection in newborns, and pica is a condition characterized by cravings for non-nutritive substances, none of which are directly related to the risks associated with a breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

4. A 93-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer's Disease gets admitted to an Alzheimer's unit. The patient has exhibited signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait. Moreover, the patient is refusing to use a w/c. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the nurse?

• A. Recommend the patient remain in her room at all times.
• B. Recommend family members bring pictures to the patient's room.
• C. Recommend a speech therapy consult to the doctor.
• D. Recommend the patient attempt to walk pushing the w/c for safety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 93-year-old female with Alzheimer's Disease exhibiting signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait, recommending family members to bring pictures to the patient's room is the most appropriate course of action. Visual stimulation in the form of pictures may help decrease signs of confusion and provide comfort to the patient. Option A is incorrect as isolating the patient in her room at all times may worsen her condition by further limiting stimulation and interaction. Option C is incorrect as speech therapy may not directly address the current issues of confusion and gait instability. Option D is incorrect as pushing a wheelchair may not be safe for the patient if she is refusing to use it, potentially leading to falls or further distress.

5. A person who had a left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis is being instructed by a nurse to use a quad cane. Which of the following is the most appropriate gait sequence?

• A. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
• B. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
• C. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
• D. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct gait sequence for a person with left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis using a quad cane is to place the cane in the patient's strong upper extremity, which is the left upper extremity in this case. The correct sequence should be right lower extremity followed by left upper extremity, as this pattern mimics a normal gait pattern. Therefore, Choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the proper gait sequence for this specific patient's condition. The cane should be placed in the strong upper extremity, and the affected lower extremity should move first to provide stability and support, which is essential in this situation.

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