Nursing Elites

1. When teaching bleeding precautions to a client with leukemia, the PN should include which of the following instructions?

• A. Use a soft toothbrush.
• B. Use dental floss daily.
• C. Hold pressure on any scrapes for 1-2 minutes.
• D. Use a triple-edged razor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Use a soft toothbrush.' A soft toothbrush is recommended because it is less likely to cause the gums to bleed in clients with leukemia, who are at risk of bleeding due to overcrowding of white cells at the expense of other cell types like platelets. Choice B, 'Use dental floss daily,' is incorrect because dental floss is contraindicated and can make the gums bleed in clients with leukemia. Choice C, 'Hold pressure on any scrapes for 1-2 minutes,' is incorrect because when clotting is impaired, pressure should be held for 5-10 minutes or longer until the bleeding stops. Choice D, 'Use a triple-edged razor,' is incorrect because an electric razor should be used instead of a triple-edged razor to prevent small cuts and bleeding in clients with leukemia.

2. A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?

• A. Administer O2.
• B. Turn the client on her left side.
• C. Notify the physician.
• D. No action is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: This scenario describes early deceleration due to head compression, which is a benign finding in labor. Early decelerations mirror the contractions and do not require any intervention as they are considered a normal response to fetal head compression. The fetal heart rate returns to baseline at the end of the contraction. In this case, the correct action is no action at the moment. Close monitoring of the mother and baby is essential, but immediate intervention is not required. Administering O2 (Choice A) or turning the client on her left side (Choice B) is not indicated for early decelerations. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is unnecessary for this type of deceleration.

3. The newborn nursery is filled to capacity. Which newborn should the nurse assess first?

• A. A three-hour-old just waking up after a period of sleep
• B. A two-day-old crying loudly
• C. A three-day-old two hours after circumcision
• D. A one-hour-old sucking his fist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical time for assessment in a newborn is during the second period of reactivity, which occurs approximately 3-5 hours after delivery. During this phase, newborns are more likely to gag on mucus and aspirate, making it crucial for the nurse to assess their respiratory status first. Choice A indicates a newborn in this critical phase, requiring immediate assessment for potential airway compromise or respiratory distress. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate need for assessment related to airway compromise or respiratory distress.

4. A nurse reviewed the arterial blood gas reading of a 25-year-old male. The nurse should be able to conclude the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?

• A. metabolic acidosis
• B. respiratory acidosis
• C. metabolic alkalosis
• D. respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is an elevated pH and low carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2 < 35 mmHg). In the given arterial blood gas reading, the patient's pH is 7.41 (within normal range), PaCO2 is 29 mmHg (below normal range), indicating respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate level is normal (25 mEq/l), ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. The low PaO2 (54 mmHg) may indicate hypoxemia, but it is not directly related to the acid-base disorder being assessed. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low bicarbonate levels, which are not present in this case. Respiratory acidosis (choice B) is indicated by low pH and high PaCO2 levels, which also do not match the provided data. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is defined by high pH and high bicarbonate levels, which are not seen in this scenario.

5. A patient has been ordered to receive Klonopin for the first time. Which of the following side effects is not associated with Klonopin?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Ataxia
• C. Salivation elevation
• D. Diplopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diplopia.' While drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation are common side effects associated with Klonopin, diplopia is not typically linked to this medication. Diplopia, or double vision, is not a common side effect reported with the use of Klonopin. It is important to monitor patients for the known side effects such as drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation when administering Klonopin. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect as they are known side effects of Klonopin, unlike diplopia which is not commonly observed with this medication.

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