Nursing Elites

1. When teaching bleeding precautions to a client with leukemia, the PN should include which of the following instructions?

• A. Use a soft toothbrush.
• B. Use dental floss daily.
• C. Hold pressure on any scrapes for 1-2 minutes.
• D. Use a triple-edged razor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Use a soft toothbrush.' A soft toothbrush is recommended because it is less likely to cause the gums to bleed in clients with leukemia, who are at risk of bleeding due to overcrowding of white cells at the expense of other cell types like platelets. Choice B, 'Use dental floss daily,' is incorrect because dental floss is contraindicated and can make the gums bleed in clients with leukemia. Choice C, 'Hold pressure on any scrapes for 1-2 minutes,' is incorrect because when clotting is impaired, pressure should be held for 5-10 minutes or longer until the bleeding stops. Choice D, 'Use a triple-edged razor,' is incorrect because an electric razor should be used instead of a triple-edged razor to prevent small cuts and bleeding in clients with leukemia.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What is the most likely electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypomagnesemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where the client experiences severe nausea and vomiting, the most likely electrolyte imbalance is hypokalemia. Potassium is abundant in the stomach, and excessive vomiting leads to potassium loss. Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Hypomagnesemia (Choice B) and Hyponatremia (Choice C) are less likely to occur compared to hypokalemia in this condition.

3. Which of the following observations is most important when assessing a client's breathing?

• A. presence of breathing and pulse rate
• B. breathing pattern and adequacy of breathing
• C. presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing
• D. patient position and adequacy of breathing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing. It is crucial to ensure that the client is not only breathing but also breathing adequately. Choices A and D are incorrect as pulse rate and patient position are not the most critical observations when assessing a client's breathing. Pulse rate is more related to assessing circulation, and patient position is important but not as crucial as ensuring the client is breathing and breathing adequately. Choice B is partially correct as breathing pattern is important, but the most critical observation is the adequacy of breathing. Adequacy of breathing ensures that the client is receiving enough oxygen to support proper body function and is the key focus during breathing assessment.

4. A client is admitted to the critical care unit after suffering from a massive cerebral vascular accident. The client's vital signs include BP 160/110, HR 42, Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates the client to be in which acid-base balance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations, which are characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with apnea. This pattern indicates respiratory insufficiency, resulting in an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. The elevated BP and slow heart rate further support the respiratory insufficiency, leading to respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is Respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which is not indicated by the client's presentation. Metabolic acidosis results from conditions such as renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis and is not the primary imbalance in this case. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, which are not present in the client's vital signs.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

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