NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
- A. renal failure
- B. psoriasis
- C. lupus
- D. cirrhosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.
2. When a client with a major burn experiences body image disturbance, which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention classification?
- A. grief work facilitation
- B. vital signs monitoring
- C. medication administration: skin
- D. anxiety reduction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'grief work facilitation' because it is a nursing intervention classification specifically designed to address disturbed body image in burn clients. The expected outcome of this intervention is grief resolution, which can help the client cope with the body image changes resulting from the burn. Choice B, 'vital signs monitoring,' is not the appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in burn clients. Vital signs monitoring is typically used for assessing physiological parameters like blood pressure, pulse rate, and temperature. Choice C, 'medication administration: skin,' is more focused on treating skin-related issues rather than addressing body image disturbance. It involves the administration of medications to promote skin healing and integrity. Choice D, 'anxiety reduction,' is aimed at managing anxiety in clients with major burns and is not specifically targeted at addressing body image disturbance. While anxiety may be a common emotional response to burns, the most appropriate intervention for body image disturbance in this scenario is 'grief work facilitation.'
3. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?
- A. She will need to sign an informed consent form.
- B. Her mother or father will need to be contacted for permission to treat her.
- C. A consent form is not needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection.
- D. Anyone over the age of 18 years may sign a consent form for her treatment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.
4. Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?
- A. when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available
- B. in an emergency, life-or-death situation
- C. when the physician is not available for discussion with the client
- D. when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.
5. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?
- A. Dysreflexia
- B. Risk for Injury
- C. Urinary Retention
- D. Unbalanced Nutrition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for Injury.' Epileptic clients are at risk for injury due to complications of seizure activity, such as falls that could lead to head trauma. 'Dysreflexia' is not typically associated with epilepsy but rather with spinal cord injury. 'Urinary Retention' is not a common nursing diagnosis for epileptic clients unless specifically indicated. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' may not be a priority nursing diagnosis compared to the immediate risk of injury in epileptic clients.
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