Nursing Elites

1. When are standard walkers typically used?

• A. When clients have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and good hand strength.
• B. When clients have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.
• C. When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.
• D. When clients have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.

2. A client with cirrhosis of the liver presents with ascites. The physician is to perform a paracentesis. For safety, the nurse should ask the client to:

• A. drink 1000 cc of fluid prior to the procedure to aid in fluid loss.
• B. eat foods low in fat.
• C. empty his bladder prior to the procedure.
• D. assume the prone position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a paracentesis, the client must be sitting up to allow the fluid to settle in the lower abdomen. To prevent trauma to the bladder while inserting a needle to aspirate the fluid, the bladder must be empty. Choice A is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can make the procedure more difficult due to increased abdominal distension. Choice B is unrelated to the procedure of paracentesis. Choice D is incorrect as the client should be sitting up, not in the prone position, during the procedure.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer the 9 am dose of IV antibiotics when she notes the IVAC cord is frayed with wiring visible. What action should be her priority for this client?

• A. Notify maintenance to come and check the pump immediately.
• B. Continue with the administration of the antibiotic and fill out an equipment maintenance request.
• C. Immediately discontinue the use of this IVAC pump and obtain a replacement.
• D. Tag the equipment for maintenance.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to immediately discontinue the use of the IVAC pump and obtain a replacement because the frayed cord poses a safety risk to the client. Continuing to use the pump with visible wiring could lead to electric shock or other serious harm to the client. Notifying maintenance to come and check the pump immediately (Choice A) may cause unnecessary delays in ensuring the client's safety. Continuing with the administration of the antibiotic and filling out an equipment maintenance request (Choice B) is unsafe as it ignores the immediate danger. Tagging the equipment for maintenance (Choice D) does not address the urgent need to protect the client from harm.

4. Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?

• A. a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
• B. a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
• C. a client with abdominal pain and purpura
• D. a client diagnosed with AIDS

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.

5. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

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