NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. Which of the following statements should the nurse use to best describe a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) to a client?
- A. "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."?
- B. "This is a long-term treatment measure that assists obese people who can't lose weight."?
- C. "The VLCD consists of solid food items that are pureed to facilitate digestion and absorption."?
- D. "A VLCD contains very little protein."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."? Very low-calorie diets (VLCDs) are used in the clinical treatment of obesity under close medical supervision. The diet is low in calories, high in quality protein, and has a minimum of carbohydrates to spare protein and prevent ketosis. Choice B is incorrect because VLCDs are typically short-term interventions. Choice C is incorrect because VLCDs usually consist of nutritionally complete liquid formulations, not solid food items that are pureed. Choice D is incorrect because VLCDs actually contain a high quality of protein, although the overall caloric content is very low.
2. In alcoholics with anemia:
- A. Pernicious anemia is more common than folic acid deficiency.
- B. Iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist.
- C. The alcohol interferes with iron absorption.
- D. Oral vitamin replacement is contraindicated.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In alcoholics with anemia, iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist due to poor dietary intake and malabsorption issues associated with chronic alcohol consumption. Pernicious anemia, primarily related to vitamin B12 deficiency, is not commonly seen in alcoholics. While alcohol can interfere with iron absorption, it is not the sole factor contributing to anemia in alcoholics. Oral vitamin replacement is not contraindicated in alcoholics with anemia; however, it may be less effective due to absorption issues related to alcohol consumption.
3. Erythropoietin used to treat anemia in clients with renal failure should be given in conjunction with:
- A. iron, folic acid, and B12.
- B. an increase in protein in the diet.
- C. vitamins A and C.
- D. an increase in calcium in the diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythropoietin is necessary for red blood cell (RBC) production, and in clients with renal failure who lack endogenous erythropoietin, exogenous erythropoietin is administered. However, for erythropoietin to effectively stimulate RBC production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12 are crucial. These nutrients are essential for RBC synthesis and maturation. Therefore, the correct answer is to give iron, folic acid, and B12 with erythropoietin. Choice B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not necessary for RBC production and may exacerbate uremia in clients with renal failure. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, respectively, are not directly related to RBC production and are not required to enhance the effectiveness of erythropoietin.
4. The client asked about the role of leptin in the body. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It increases food intake in clients, thereby promoting obesity.
- B. It assists in the regulation of steroids.
- C. It increases the total fat mass of people who are obese.
- D. It might decrease the total fat mass in the bodies of people who are obese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leptin is a protein hormone expressed in fat cells that regulates fat cell percentage in the body. It is associated with increased energy expenditure and decreased food intake through hypothalamic control. In obese individuals, there may be insensitivity or resistance to leptin's effects. Leptin influences other hormones like insulin and genetic factors related to fat regulation. Therefore, the correct response is that leptin might decrease total fat mass in obese individuals as it is involved in energy balance and fat regulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leptin does not increase food intake or promote obesity; it does not assist in the regulation of steroids, and it does not increase total fat mass in people who are obese.
5. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?
- A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
- B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
- C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
- D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access