NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. Which of the following statements should the nurse use to best describe a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) to a client?
- A. "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."?
- B. "This is a long-term treatment measure that assists obese people who can't lose weight."?
- C. "The VLCD consists of solid food items that are pureed to facilitate digestion and absorption."?
- D. "A VLCD contains very little protein."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."? Very low-calorie diets (VLCDs) are used in the clinical treatment of obesity under close medical supervision. The diet is low in calories, high in quality protein, and has a minimum of carbohydrates to spare protein and prevent ketosis. Choice B is incorrect because VLCDs are typically short-term interventions. Choice C is incorrect because VLCDs usually consist of nutritionally complete liquid formulations, not solid food items that are pureed. Choice D is incorrect because VLCDs actually contain a high quality of protein, although the overall caloric content is very low.
2. The nurse is obtaining a health assessment from the preoperative client scheduled for hip replacement surgery. Which statement by the client would be most important for the nurse to report to the physician?
- A. "I had chickenpox when I was 8 years old."?
- B. "I had rheumatic fever when I was 10 years old."?
- C. "I have a strong family history of gastric cancer."?
- D. "I have pain in my hip with any movement."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important statement for the nurse to report to the physician is that the client had rheumatic fever when they were 10 years old. This information is crucial as individuals who have had rheumatic fever require pre-medication with antibiotics before any surgical or dental procedure to prevent bacterial endocarditis. Reporting this history ensures the client's safety during the hip replacement surgery. The other options, such as having chickenpox in the past, a family history of gastric cancer, or experiencing hip pain, are important for the client's overall health assessment but do not have the same immediate implications for the upcoming surgery as the history of rheumatic fever.
3. Which client should the nurse see first?
- A. Recurring crushing chest pain
- B. Needing an IV for surgery in 5 minutes
- C. Needing PCA morphine for pain control post-hysterectomy
- D. Waiting to get back to bed after sitting in a chair for 30 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client presenting with recurring crushing chest pain should be seen first as this symptom could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Assessing and managing potential cardiac issues take priority over other concerns like needing an IV for surgery, pain control post-hysterectomy, or assistance with mobility. While all clients require care, addressing the chest pain promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
4. When a client informs the nurse that he is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse provides immediate intervention by providing:
- A. one commercially prepared glucose tablet
- B. two hard candies
- C. 4-6 ounces of fruit juice
- D. 2-3 teaspoons of honey
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for hypoglycemia is to provide 10-15 grams of fast-acting simple carbohydrates orally if the client is conscious and able to swallow. This can be achieved by giving 2-3 teaspoons of honey. Honey is a quick source of simple sugars that can rapidly raise blood glucose levels. Commercially prepared glucose tablets or 4-6 ounces of fruit juice are also appropriate options. However, adding sugar to fruit juice is unnecessary as the natural fruit sugar in juice already provides enough simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels. Hard candies are not the best choice for immediate intervention in hypoglycemia as they may not provide a sufficient amount of fast-acting carbohydrates needed to raise blood sugar levels quickly.
5. When discussing possible complications of pregnancy with a client, the nurse should explain that all of the following are symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy?
- A. low back pain
- B. urinary frequency
- C. GI distress
- D. malaise
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy. It is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are usually no problems. Frequency may return in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. UTI symptoms include low back pain, suprapubic discomfort, and malaise, and are confirmed by laboratory findings. Low back pain, GI distress, and malaise are more closely associated with UTI during pregnancy compared to urinary frequency.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access