signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children typically include nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils during breathing to help with air intake, grunting is a sound made during expiration to keep the airway open, and seesaw breathing is an abnormal pattern where the chest moves in while the abdomen moves out. Quivering lips are not a typical sign of impaired breathing in infants and children, making it the correct answer. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all signs indicating the need for immediate medical attention due to potential respiratory distress.

2. Teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal disease are predisposed to hyperkalemia and should avoid foods high in potassium. High potassium levels can further burden the kidneys and worsen the condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk for hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels. Therefore, these clients should actually be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium to maintain adequate levels and prevent complications associated with hypokalemia.

3. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

4. Which sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often be asymptomatic, earning it the nickname 'silent STD.' It is more common than gonorrhea and is a leading cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Genital herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection, not a bacterial STD like chlamydia. Trichomoniasis (Choice B) is a parasitic infection and not commonly associated with causing PID. Syphilis (Choice C) is a bacterial infection but is not as common as chlamydia and is not a leading cause of PID.

5. A patient has been admitted to the hospital with an L4-5 HNP diagnosis. After 24 hours, the patient is able to ambulate with assistance and has reduced muscle spasms. Which of the following medications was the most beneficial in changing the patient's mobility status?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Flexeril. Flexeril is a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat acute muscle pain and spasms. In this scenario, the patient experiencing reduced muscle spasms and improved mobility after taking Flexeril indicates its effectiveness. Choice A, Mivacron, is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is not typically used for muscle spasms or pain relief. Choice B, Atropine, is a medication used to treat certain types of nerve agent and pesticide poisonings, not muscle spasms. Choice C, Bethanechol, is a medication that stimulates bladder contractions and is not indicated for muscle spasms or mobility improvement.

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