Nursing Elites

1. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
• B. Document the findings.
• C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
• D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.

2. When a nurse asks a client to repeat the word 'ninety-nine' while listening through the stethoscope and is able to hear the word clearly, which assessment finding is being documented?

• A. Normal egophony
• B. Abnormal vesicular breath sounds
• C. Abnormal bronchophony
• D. Normal whispered pectoriloquy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is documenting an abnormal bronchophony assessment finding. Bronchophony is a technique where the nurse asks the client to repeat a specific word, such as 'ninety-nine,' while listening through the stethoscope. Normally, the voice transmission is soft, muffled, and indistinct. However, if there is a pathologic condition increasing lung density, the nurse will hear the word clearly, indicating an abnormality. Vesicular breath sounds are normal sounds heard over peripheral lung fields and are not related to vocal resonance assessment. Egophony involves the client phonating a long 'ee-ee-ee-ee' sound, not repeating a specific word. Whispered pectoriloquy involves whispering a phrase like 'one-two-three,' not repeating a specific word. In these cases, normal findings are 'eeeeee' for egophony and a muffled, almost inaudible sound for whispered pectoriloquy.

3. Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:

• A. conforming to standards.
• B. performing at the minimally acceptable level.
• C. meeting or exceeding customer requirements.
• D. exceeding customer expectations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'performing at the minimally acceptable level.' Quality is about meeting or exceeding customer requirements and expectations, as well as conforming to standards. The term 'performing at the minimally acceptable level' implies just meeting the minimum requirements, which falls short of the comprehensive definition of quality in terms of customer satisfaction and excellence. Therefore, this choice is the exception when defining quality. Choices A, C, and D align with the definition of quality as they all involve meeting or surpassing certain criteria for customer satisfaction and product excellence, which are essential components of quality management.

4. A day care center has asked the nurse to provide education for parents regarding safety in the home. What type of preventive care does this represent?

• A. Primary
• B. Secondary
• C. Tertiary
• D. Health promotion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary prevention involves activities that promote wellness or prevent illness or injury. Educating parents about safety measures in the home aims to prevent injuries, making it a primary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention in diseases or injuries. Tertiary prevention involves reducing disability and promoting optimal functioning in relation to a disease or injury. Health promotion encompasses activities that enhance a client's overall health and well-being. In this scenario, educating parents about safety in the home falls under primary prevention as it aims to prevent injuries before they occur.

5. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:

• A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
• B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
• C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
• D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.

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