Nursing Elites

1. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
• B. Document the findings.
• C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
• D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.

2. While assisting with data collection of an adult client, a nurse asks the client to identify various odors. In this technique, which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• A. Optic
• B. Abducens
• C. Olfactory
• D. Hypoglossal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Olfactory.' The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell. Assessing this nerve involves testing the client's ability to identify various odors. Loss of smell, head trauma, abnormal mental status, and suspected intracranial lesions are conditions where testing the olfactory nerve is essential. The optic nerve is evaluated for visual acuity and visual fields. The abducens nerve is usually assessed alongside the oculomotor and trochlear nerves, focusing on pupil size, regularity, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements. The hypoglossal nerve is examined by inspecting the tongue, not by assessing the sense of smell.

3. When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, where might they be best served?

• A. Rehabilitation center.
• B. Extended care facility.
• C. Hospice.
• D. Crisis intervention center.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, they are best served by Hospice. Hospice offers a more humanized alternative care for dying clients compared to hospitals, focusing on comfort and quality of life in the final stages of life. It provides a specialized interdisciplinary team of health care professionals who work together to manage client care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a rehabilitation center focuses on physical therapy, an extended care facility provides long-term care for activities of daily living, and a crisis intervention center deals with immediate psychological or social crises, none of which cater to the specific needs of clients facing the end stage of a terminal illness.

4. A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................

• A. Sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• B. Lie down 1 hour after eating; sit up at least 30 minutes after eating
• C. Sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. Lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.

5. A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?

• A. Pulling the pinna up and back
• B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
• C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
• D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.

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