Nursing Elites

1. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
• B. Document the findings.
• C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
• D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.

2. When should rehabilitation services begin?

• A. when the client enters the health care system.
• B. after the client requests rehabilitation services
• C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
• D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can help prevent complications, improve recovery, and enhance overall well-being. Option B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request services may lead to delays in starting treatment, potentially affecting the recovery process. Option C is incorrect as rehabilitation can often commence even when the client's physical condition is not fully stabilized, as early intervention is crucial for progress. Option D is incorrect as beginning rehabilitation only after hospital discharge may not be ideal, as early intervention within the healthcare system is preferred for a more effective recovery journey.

3. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?

• A. it explains the health beliefs a family is likely to have.
• B. it emphasizes the role of culture in shaping health explanations.
• C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
• D. it is structured based on education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the crucial role that popular and folk domains of influence play in shaping individuals' understanding of health and illness. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, which is the biomedical understanding of health problems, and illness, which is the individual's personal interpretation of their health condition. By focusing on the cultural factors that influence these domains of influence, Kleinman's model underscores the impact of cultural beliefs and practices on health perceptions. Choice A is incorrect because the model goes beyond just family health beliefs. Choice B is more precise as it emphasizes the broader influence of culture. Choice C highlights the correct significance of popular and folk domains of influence, making it the correct choice. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in cultural domains, not educational structure.

4. After breast reconstruction secondary to breast cancer, the nurse should recognize which of the following expected client outcomes as evidence of a favorable response to nursing interventions related to disturbed body image?

• A. maintaining adequate tissue perfusion
• B. demonstrating behaviors that reduce fears
• C. restored body integrity
• D. remaining free of infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'restored body integrity.' This outcome is crucial in addressing disturbed body image following breast reconstruction. Restored body integrity reflects a positive perception of one's body after surgery, contributing to improved body image. Choices A, 'maintaining adequate tissue perfusion,' are more related to physiological outcomes and are not directly linked to body image concerns. Choice B, 'demonstrating behaviors that reduce fears,' is associated with anxiety management, not body image. Choice D, 'remaining free of infection,' pertains to preventing infections and does not directly address body image concerns.

5. The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:

• A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
• B. setting goals
• C. planning
• D. specifying priorities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.

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