Nursing Elites

1. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
• B. Document the findings.
• C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
• D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.

2. The mother of an adolescent calls the clinic nurse and reports that her daughter wants to have her navel pierced. The mother asks the nurse about the dangers associated with body piercing. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. Infection always occurs when body piercing is done
• B. Hepatitis B is a concern with body piercing
• C. Body piercing is generally harmless as long as it is performed under sterile conditions
• D. It is important to discourage body piercing because of the risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Generally, body piercing is harmless if the procedure is performed under sterile conditions by a qualified person. Some complications that may occur include bleeding, infection, keloid formation, and the development of allergies to metal. It is essential to clean the area at least twice a day (more often for a tongue piercing) to prevent infection. HIV and hepatitis B infections are not typically associated with body piercing; however, they are a possibility with tattooing. Choice A is incorrect because infection does not always occur when body piercing is done. Choice B is not the best answer as hepatitis B is not commonly associated with body piercing. Choice D is incorrect because the risk of contracting HIV is not a significant concern with body piercing if performed under sterile conditions.

3. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:

• A. increased ferning capacity.
• B. lack of ferning.
• C. spinnbarkheit.
• D. inhospitable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.

4. Which of the following is least appropriate when caring for a stable postpartum client?

• A. Assess the location and height of the fundus.
• B. Conduct a family assessment, including the mother's future plans for returning to work, if applicable.
• C. Monitor the client for bleeding.
• D. Provide perineal care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing perineal care is not the least appropriate when caring for a stable postpartum client. Perineal care is essential for maintaining hygiene and preventing infection after delivery. Assessing the location and height of the fundus helps in monitoring postpartum uterine involution, which is crucial for assessing the recovery progress. Conducting a family assessment, including the mother's future plans for returning to work, is important for understanding the support system available for the mother during the postpartum period. Monitoring the client for bleeding is critical to promptly identify and address any postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, providing perineal care is the least appropriate option among the choices provided as it is a fundamental aspect of postpartum care.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows and looking for symmetry
• B. Asking the client to clench the teeth, then palpating the masseter muscles just above the mandibular angle
• C. Asking the client to close the eyes and then identify light and sharp touch with a cotton ball and a pin on both sides of the face
• D. Asking the client to close their eyes and then indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse brings the watch closer to the client's ear

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

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