Nursing Elites

1. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
• B. Document the findings.
• C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
• D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.

2. A sexually active adolescent asks the school nurse about the use of latex condoms and the reduction of the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse provides which information to the adolescent?

• A. Using a latex condom is a good method for reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
• B. The only way to reduce the risk of transmission of STIs is abstinence.
• C. A spermicide needs to be used along with a condom to prevent transmission of STIs.
• D. Using a latex condom can reduce the risk of transmission of STIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that using a condom during intercourse can reduce the risk of STI transmission. Abstinence is a way to prevent STIs, but not the only way. Using a spermicide along with a condom can help prevent pregnancy, not STIs. While condoms may fail to prevent pregnancy, they are effective in reducing the risk of STI transmission. Therefore, using a latex condom for pregnancy prevention is not directly related to preventing the transmission of STIs.

3. Which of the following would likely not impede learning?

• A. a client who took Ambien� an hour ago
• B. a bipolar client currently in a manic phase
• C. a client who states they are not interested
• D. a client with dysphagia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client who states they are not interested. While lack of interest can hinder learning motivation, it is not a physical or mental barrier that directly impacts the learning process. On the other hand, a client who took Ambien� an hour ago may experience drowsiness or impaired cognitive function, affecting their ability to learn. A bipolar client in a manic phase may exhibit symptoms such as racing thoughts, distractibility, and impulsivity, making it challenging for them to focus and engage in the learning process. A client with dysphagia may have difficulty swallowing, which can interfere with their ability to take oral medications or participate in activities that involve swallowing.

4. While assisting with data collection of an adult client, a nurse asks the client to identify various odors. In this technique, which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• A. Optic
• B. Abducens
• C. Olfactory
• D. Hypoglossal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Olfactory.' The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell. Assessing this nerve involves testing the client's ability to identify various odors. Loss of smell, head trauma, abnormal mental status, and suspected intracranial lesions are conditions where testing the olfactory nerve is essential. The optic nerve is evaluated for visual acuity and visual fields. The abducens nerve is usually assessed alongside the oculomotor and trochlear nerves, focusing on pupil size, regularity, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements. The hypoglossal nerve is examined by inspecting the tongue, not by assessing the sense of smell.

5. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

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