Nursing Elites

1. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
• B. Document the findings.
• C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
• D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.

2. A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm, and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?

• A. Notify the physician immediately
• B. Obtain a Doppler device to check for pulses, and notify the physician if they are still absent
• C. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the pulses
• D. Document the finding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler device. Since the client just had surgery with a risk of arterial insufficiency, close monitoring is crucial. If pulses are not palpable, it indicates an emergent situation requiring immediate physician notification. Waiting 30 minutes before reassessment could lead to foot ischemia. While documenting findings is essential, it should follow pulse confirmation or necessary interventions to ensure the client's foot viability.

3. The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?

• A. vitamin B12 deficiency
• B. chronic hypoglycemia
• C. vitamin D deficiency
• D. increased tolerance to Metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is vitamin B12 deficiency. Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. Chronic hypoglycemia is unlikely in a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin as it typically causes hyperglycemia. Vitamin D deficiency usually presents with symptoms related to bones and muscles, not confusion and mood changes. Increased tolerance to Metformin does not explain the client's new symptoms, which are more indicative of a nutritional deficiency like vitamin B12.

4. When should rehabilitation services begin?

• A. when the client enters the health care system.
• B. after the client requests rehabilitation services
• C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
• D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can help prevent complications, improve recovery, and enhance overall well-being. Option B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request services may lead to delays in starting treatment, potentially affecting the recovery process. Option C is incorrect as rehabilitation can often commence even when the client's physical condition is not fully stabilized, as early intervention is crucial for progress. Option D is incorrect as beginning rehabilitation only after hospital discharge may not be ideal, as early intervention within the healthcare system is preferred for a more effective recovery journey.

5. What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?

• A. ''A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.''
• B. ''The number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases in the normal aging process.''
• C. ''The skin on the scalp becomes thin, causing moisture to escape.''
• D. ''It is caused by hereditary factors.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.

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