NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:
- A. increased ferning capacity.
- B. lack of ferning.
- C. spinnbarkheit.
- D. inhospitable.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.
2. A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN's best response?
- A. You cannot prevent getting Group B Strep; you can only treat it.
- B. You should have your partner wear a condom every time you have intercourse.
- C. You should be extra vigilant about hand-washing, especially in the third trimester.
- D. The Group B Strep vaccine is the only proven way to prevent the disease.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the LPN to provide to a pregnant client concerned about preventing Group B Strep is that it cannot be prevented, only treated. Group B Strep is a normal flora found in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of women and is not a sexually transmitted disease. Testing for Group B Strep is done in each pregnancy, usually around 35-37 weeks. If a woman tests positive, antibiotics are administered during labor to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice A is the correct answer as Group B Strep cannot be prevented but only treated. Choice B is incorrect; condom use does not prevent Group B Strep. Choice C is not the best response as hand-washing is important for general hygiene but does not specifically prevent Group B Strep. Choice D is incorrect as there is no vaccine available to prevent Group B Strep.
3. When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, what technique should a nurse use?
- A. Ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap.
- B. Listen to the right lung first, then the left lung, moving from top to bottom systematically.
- C. Ask the client to take deep breaths through the mouth.
- D. Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against the client's chest.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, a nurse should ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little more deeply than usual but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should use the flat diaphragm end-piece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest wall. By using the diaphragm, the nurse can listen for at least one full respiration in each location, moving from side to side to compare sounds. This technique ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of lung sounds. Choice A is correct as it includes the proper positioning of the client and specifies the use of the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Choice B is incorrect as both lungs should be auscultated systematically, starting from the top and moving down. Choice C is incorrect as deep breaths, not shallow ones, are recommended for an accurate assessment of breath sounds.
4. A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?
- A. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats/min above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline
- B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats/min for 15 seconds
- C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement
- D. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.
5. When a client describes their family as having multiple wives, all of whom are sisters, married to one man, the nurse documents the family structure as?
- A. polyandry
- B. sororal
- C. nonsororal
- D. soronal
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'soronal.' The practice of polygamy refers to having multiple wives or husbands. When there are multiple wives who are sisters, the polygamy is designated as sororal. Polyandry refers to multiple husbands, which is rare. Nonsororal polygamy is when the wives are not sisters. Sororate polygamy specifies that a husband must marry his wife’s sister if she dies. Therefore, in this scenario, the family structure described by the client fits the definition of soronal polygamy.
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