a 60 year old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping extreme apprehension shortness of breath and a sense of impending doom
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

2. Which of the following services is not typically part of family consultation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In family consultation, the primary focus is on helping families address their emotions, enhance communication skills, and resolve issues. Assisting with vocational rehabilitation involves a different scope beyond the typical objectives of family consultation. While providing information about the client's illness, teaching effective communication, and aiding families in problem-solving are common in family consultation to promote understanding, healthy dynamics, and conflict resolution.

3. The new mother asks why her baby has lost weight since he was born. The best explanation of the weight loss is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After birth, newborns can lose weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and the initiation of breastfeeding. This weight loss is a normal and expected physiological process, and infants can lose up to 10% of their birth weight during this period. There is no indication of dehydration (polyuria), hypoglycemia (lack of glucose), or allergy to the formula as reasons for weight loss in newborns. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Answer D provides the most accurate explanation for the observed weight loss in the newborn.

4. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).

5. A client in the cardiac step-down unit requires suctioning for excess mucous secretions. The nurse should be most careful to monitor the client for which dysrhythmia during this procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During suctioning, a vagal response can be triggered leading to bradycardia. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for this potential dysrhythmia. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely during suctioning and is not the priority. Premature ventricular beats (Choice C) and heart block (Choice D) can occur but are less common compared to bradycardia in this situation.

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