a 60 year old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping extreme apprehension shortness of breath and a sense of impending doom
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

2. A home health nurse is making preparations for morning visits. Which one of the following clients should the nurse visit first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea should be seen first as airway management is a priority in nursing care. This client's symptoms indicate potential respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Choices A, C, and D involve clients who are more stable and do not present with urgent or acute conditions that require immediate intervention. Choice A with a client receiving tube feedings for a stroke may require attention, but the urgency of addressing potential respiratory distress in choice B takes precedence. Choice C, a client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago, unless presenting with acute distress, does not necessitate immediate attention. Choice D, a client with Parkinson's disease, is usually a chronic condition that does not typically require immediate intervention for the described scenario.

3. Which of the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. Normal saline is 0.9% sodium chloride, which has the same osmolarity as blood and does not cause cell lysis. Choices 2 and 3, 5% dextrose in water solution and sterile water, are hypotonic solutions that can lead to cell lysis. Choice 4, Heparin sodium, is an anticoagulant and is not routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood.

4. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.

5. In the emergency room, a nurse is responsible for triaging four clients injured in a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following clients should receive priority in care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 15-year-old with sternal bruises should receive priority in care as this client might be experiencing airway and oxygenation problems. Airway issues take precedence in triage. The 10-year-old with lacerations on the face, although looking bad, is not in immediate distress. The 34-year-old with a fractured femur should be immobilized but can be seen after the client with sternal bruising. The 50-year-old with a dislocated elbow can also be seen later as dislocated elbows are not life-threatening compared to potential airway compromise.

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