Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old male client had a diving accident with subsequent paraplegia. He says to the nurse, "No woman will ever want to marry me now."? Which of the following responses by the nurse is most therapeutic?

• A. "Don't worry. Maybe you'll meet a paraplegic woman."?
• B. "There is someone for everyone in this world."?
• C. "You are still an attractive man, even though you can't walk."?
• D. "Tell me more about your feelings on this issue."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is 'Tell me more about your feelings on this issue.' This answer is the most therapeutic as it encourages the client to express his emotions and concerns, fostering a supportive and open dialogue between the client and the nurse. Option A may come across as dismissive and does not directly address the client's emotional state. Option B, while positive, oversimplifies the client's complex feelings. Option C focuses only on physical appearance, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the client's emotional well-being. Therefore, the most therapeutic response is to encourage further discussion about the client's feelings.

2. While taking care of a client, the nurse thinks that physical therapy in the hospital might be beneficial to their condition. The following is the ideal referral process EXCEPT?

• A. Transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment after receiving an official referral.
• B. Provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record after the referral.
• C. Contact the client's primary care provider to suggest a physical therapy referral.
• D. Request the client to self-refer to the physical therapist.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ideal referral process for a client to receive physical therapy in the hospital starts with the nurse contacting the client's primary care provider to discuss and suggest a physical therapy referral. The primary care provider should provide an official referral, which is crucial for initiating the treatment process. After obtaining the official referral, the nurse should provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record. This step is essential for the therapist to assess the client's condition and customize the treatment plan accordingly. Once the physical therapist is informed and prepared, the nurse can then transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment. Therefore, the correct sequence is to first contact the primary care provider (Choice C), then provide the medical record (Choice B), and finally transport the client for treatment (Choice A). Choice D, suggesting the client self-refer to the physical therapist, is incorrect as the referral process should involve healthcare professionals to ensure proper assessment and treatment planning.

3. Which of the following medications might cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding?

• A. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• B. Naprosyn (naproxen)
• C. Elavil (amitriptyline)
• D. Corgard (nadolol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naprosyn (naproxen) is known to cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding due to its effects on the stomach lining. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach and increase the risk of UGI bleeding. On the other hand, Cardizem (diltiazem), Elavil (amitriptyline), and Corgard (nadolol) are not typically associated with UGI bleeding. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and angina, Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Corgard is a beta-blocker used for hypertension.

4. When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:

• A. Indomethacin
• B. Codeine
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Compazine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.

5. What is the term for the tendency of a drug to combine with its receptor?

• A. potency
• B. efficacy
• C. kinetics
• D. affinity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'affinity.' Affinity refers to the close relationship or mutual attraction between a drug and its receptor, indicating the strength of the drug-receptor bonding. Potency (Choice A) is related to the dose of a drug needed to produce a specific effect. Efficacy (Choice B) refers to a drug's ability to generate the desired effect. Kinetics (Choice C) deals with forces affecting the motion of material bodies or changes in a system, which is not directly associated with the bonding between a drug and its receptor.

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