Nursing Elites

1. The physician's role in case management includes all of the following except:

• A. participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients.
• B. serving as the expert for resource utilization.
• C. consulting with the case management team to facilitate timely orders as needed.
• D. contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'serving as the expert for resource utilization.' While physicians play a crucial role in case management, their primary focus is on medical diagnosis and treatment rather than resource utilization. Choices A, C, and D are all roles that physicians typically fulfill in case management. A physician participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients ensures comprehensive care, consulting with the case management team helps in coordinating timely orders, and contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services aids in providing appropriate care. Therefore, serving as the expert for resource utilization does not align with the primary responsibilities of a physician in case management.

2. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

3. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

4. A nurse witnesses a client sign the consent form for surgery with the surgeon. As the surgeon leaves, the client starts to speak and then stops. The nurse asks if the client has further questions, and he says, "I don't want to bother the surgeon."? The nurse should ____.

• A. acknowledge the client's wish not to bother the surgeon and tell the client to let you know if they change their mind
• B. acknowledge the client's wish not to bother the surgeon and answer all of their questions, as appropriate
• C. go get the surgeon to answer all of the client's questions
• D. answer any questions as appropriate as well as have the surgeon come back to answer any questions if needed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize the client's understanding and comfort. While acknowledging the client's wish not to bother the surgeon is important, it is equally crucial to ensure that the client's questions are answered appropriately and thoroughly. Choice A is correct as it respects the client's initial sentiment and offers the client the opportunity to ask questions later if needed. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests answering all questions immediately, without considering the client's feelings. Choice C is incorrect as it bypasses the nurse's role in addressing the client's concerns. Choice D, the correct answer, balances respecting the client's wish and ensuring that all questions are appropriately addressed, even if it involves the surgeon returning.

5. Which of the following scenarios are considered violations of HIPAA laws?

• A. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed.
• B. Looking up the medical information of a friend without permission.
• C. Checking on your spouse's medical record because you are listed as her power of attorney.
• D. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scenarios B and C are considered violations of HIPAA laws. Looking up the medical information of a friend who is not in your care, even with permission, is a violation of HIPAA as the friend is not your patient. Checking on your spouse's medical record, even as a power of attorney, is a violation unless it is directly related to caregiving decisions. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed is not a violation of HIPAA. This scenario is considered an 'incidental disclosure' and is not a breach of HIPAA privacy rules. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client is actually a good practice as it maintains client confidentiality.

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