Nursing Elites

1. The physician's role in case management includes all of the following except:

• A. participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients.
• B. serving as the expert for resource utilization.
• C. consulting with the case management team to facilitate timely orders as needed.
• D. contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'serving as the expert for resource utilization.' While physicians play a crucial role in case management, their primary focus is on medical diagnosis and treatment rather than resource utilization. Choices A, C, and D are all roles that physicians typically fulfill in case management. A physician participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients ensures comprehensive care, consulting with the case management team helps in coordinating timely orders, and contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services aids in providing appropriate care. Therefore, serving as the expert for resource utilization does not align with the primary responsibilities of a physician in case management.

2. The advanced directive in a client's chart is dated August 12, 1998. The client's daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care directions. What should the nurse do?

• A. Follow the 1998 version because it's part of the legal chart.
• B. Follow the 1998 version because the physician's code order is based on it.
• C. Follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.
• D. Follow neither until clarified by the unit manager.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The document dated 2003 supersedes the previous version and should be used as a basis for care directions. The nurse should follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately to ensure that the most current care directions are followed. Choices A and B are incorrect because the 1998 version is now outdated, and the nurse should not rely on it for care decisions. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not delay following the updated document, and seeking clarification from the unit manager can lead to avoidable delays in care.

3. Under what circumstances is the legal right to confidentiality of client information waived?

• A. When a court system subpoenas information.
• B. When a family member requests health care information of a client.
• C. When a living will takes effect.
• D. When the client is declared incompetent by the legal system.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The legal right to confidentiality of client information is waived when a court system subpoenas information. This occurs when information is required for legal proceedings to occur, such as through summonses, court orders, or litigation information necessary for the court. Subpoenas are legal orders that compel the disclosure of information. The other choices do not inherently waive the legal right to confidentiality. A family member's request for health care information would typically require the client's consent or fall under specific legal exceptions. A living will dictates end-of-life care preferences but does not necessarily waive confidentiality. Lastly, the declaration of incompetence may impact decision-making capacity but does not automatically waive confidentiality.

4. Once the nurse has made initial rounds and checked all of the assigned clients, which client should be cared for first?

• A. A client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 p.m.
• B. A client in skeletal traction who has just received pain medication
• C. A client scheduled for physical therapy at 11 a.m.
• D. A client who is able to perform activities of daily living independently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority should be given to the client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 p.m. Preparing a client for surgery involves various tasks such as physical and emotional preparation, following healthcare provider instructions, and potential last-minute changes in the surgical schedule. It is crucial to ensure the client is adequately prepared. Providing care to a client who just received pain medication can wait until the medication takes effect. Clients who are independent in performing daily activities and those scheduled for physical therapy later in the morning are not as high a priority as preparing a client for an upcoming surgery. Therefore, the client scheduled for surgery should be cared for first to ensure all necessary preparations are completed.

5. How many feet should separate the nurse and the source when extinguishing a small, wastebasket fire with an appropriate extinguisher?

• A. 1 foot
• B. 2 feet
• C. 4 feet
• D. 6 feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should stand about 6 feet from the source of the fire. Getting closer might put the nurse in danger. Choice A, 1 foot, is incorrect because it is too close to the fire and can expose the nurse to unnecessary risk. Choice B, 2 feet, is also too close to the fire and may lead to potential harm. Similarly, choice C, 4 feet, is not the ideal distance as it is still within the range of potential danger. The correct answer is D, 6 feet, which is a safe distance for the nurse to extinguish the fire effectively without risking personal safety.

Similar Questions