Nursing Elites

1. Which physiologic mechanism best describes the function of the sodium-potassium pump?

• A. active transport
• B. diffusion
• C. filtration
• D. osmosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Active transport is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process involved in the sodium-potassium pump. The pump utilizes energy to move ions against their concentration gradient, maintaining cellular concentrations. Diffusion (choice B) is a passive process where substances move from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. Filtration (choice C) involves the movement of solutes based on pressure gradients. Osmosis (choice D) is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.

2. Is head lag expected to be resolved by 4 months of age? Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate?

• A. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension.
• B. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps.
• C. Drowsiness, lethargy, and fatigue.
• D. Neuropathy and tingling in the extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Head lag is a developmental milestone that should be resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age may indicate potential developmental delays or muscle weakness. The correct answer, 'Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation, and stomach cramps,' reflects symptoms that could be associated with developmental delays or underlying health conditions. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension (Choice A) are unlikely to be directly related to head lag. Choices C and D present symptoms that are unrelated to the issue of continued head lag at 6 months of age.

3. The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy (Coumadin®) following a stroke. The client's PT/INR was completed at 7:00 A.M. prior to the morning meal with an INR reading of 4.0. Which of the following is the nurse's first priority?

• A. Call the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin® dose.
• B. Administer a vitamin K injection IM and notify the physician of the results.
• C. Assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the lab results and latest dose of Coumadin®.
• D. Notify the next shift to hold the daily dose of Coumadin® scheduled for 5:00 P.M.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client receiving warfarin therapy with a high INR of 4.0, the nurse's first priority is to administer a vitamin K injection intramuscularly (IM) and notify the physician of the results. An INR of 4.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of bleeding. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose and helps to reverse its effects. It is crucial to administer vitamin K promptly to prevent bleeding complications. Calling the physician to request an increase in the Coumadin® dose is inappropriate and dangerous in this situation, as it would further raise the INR. Assessing the client for bleeding and notifying the physician is important but not the first priority when faced with a critically high INR. Holding the daily dose of Coumadin® may be necessary after administering vitamin K, but it is not the primary action needed to address the acute high INR level.

4. What is the best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

• A. platelet count
• B. prothrombin time (PT)
• C. partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. D-dimer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best lab test to diagnose disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the D-dimer test. In DIC, numerous small clots form throughout the body and are rapidly broken down. D-dimer measures a specific fibrin split product and is the most specific test for DIC. Platelet count (Choice A) is decreased in DIC due to consumption, but it is not specific for diagnosing DIC. Prothrombin time (PT - Choice B) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT - Choice C) are both elevated in DIC because clotting factors have been used up, but they are not specific for DIC as they can be elevated in other conditions as well.

5. The LPN is preparing to ambulate a client post total knee replacement. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform prior to ambulating the client?

• A. Assist the client to a sitting position at the edge of the bed
• B. Have the client march in place for 30 seconds
• C. Have the client raise his arms above his head
• D. Ask the client the last time he fell

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to perform before ambulating a client post total knee replacement is to assist the client to a sitting position at the edge of the bed. This step is crucial to prevent orthostatic hypotension and ensure the client is ready to stand and walk safely. Having the client march in place or raise his arms above his head are not necessary preparations for ambulation. While knowing about the client's fall history is important for safety reasons, it is not the priority action immediately before ambulating the client.

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