a patient has been ordered to get tegretol for the first time which of the following side effects is not associated with tegretol
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. A patient has been prescribed Tegretol for the first time. Which of the following side effects is not associated with Tegretol?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shortness of breath.' Side effects commonly associated with Tegretol include sore throat, vertigo, and fever. Shortness of breath is not a typical side effect of Tegretol use. Sore throat, vertigo, and fever are known side effects of Tegretol, while shortness of breath is not typically linked to its use.

2. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for a client with insomnia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Ineffective breathing pattern.' When a client presents with insomnia, assessing for underlying causes is crucial. Sleep apnea, an airway issue, may be a contributing factor to the client's insomnia, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the priority. 'Disturbed sensory perception' focuses on alterations in touch, taste, or vision, which are not directly related to insomnia. 'Ineffective coping' addresses a client's inability to manage stress, which, although important, is not the priority in this case. 'Sleep deprivation' is a consequence of insomnia rather than a primary nursing diagnosis.

3. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children typically include nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils during breathing to help with air intake, grunting is a sound made during expiration to keep the airway open, and seesaw breathing is an abnormal pattern where the chest moves in while the abdomen moves out. Quivering lips are not a typical sign of impaired breathing in infants and children, making it the correct answer. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all signs indicating the need for immediate medical attention due to potential respiratory distress.

4. Which of the following statements should the nurse use to best describe a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) to a client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."? Very low-calorie diets (VLCDs) are used in the clinical treatment of obesity under close medical supervision. The diet is low in calories, high in quality protein, and has a minimum of carbohydrates to spare protein and prevent ketosis. Choice B is incorrect because VLCDs are typically short-term interventions. Choice C is incorrect because VLCDs usually consist of nutritionally complete liquid formulations, not solid food items that are pureed. Choice D is incorrect because VLCDs actually contain a high quality of protein, although the overall caloric content is very low.

5. A healthcare provider is screening patients for various vaccines. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Mumps. The Mumps vaccine, along with the Rubella vaccine, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of affecting the developing fetus. Diphtheria, Hepatitis B, and Tetanus vaccines are considered safe during pregnancy and are often recommended to protect both the pregnant individual and the developing fetus. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

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