which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

2. Which of the following statements indicates adequate dietary understanding in a client with constipation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, "I should increase my intake of apples."? This statement indicates adequate dietary understanding in a client with constipation because apples are a good source of fiber, which helps alleviate constipation. Adequate fiber intake is essential for promoting bowel regularity. Choices A and B are incorrect as decreasing fluids and activity level can worsen constipation. Insufficient fluid intake can lead to hard stools, exacerbating constipation. Decreasing activity can also slow down bowel movements. Choice D is incorrect because milk is not a high-fiber food and may not effectively address constipation. While milk can have a mild laxative effect on some individuals, it is not a primary solution for constipation, especially when compared to high-fiber foods like apples.

3. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

4. Which action by the nurse represents the ethical principle of benevolence?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Benevolence is taking action to help others. In this scenario, administering an immunization to a child, even though it may cause discomfort, aligns with the principle of benevolence as the benefits of protection from disease outweigh the temporary discomfort. Fidelity refers to keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy is a person's independence, and respecting autonomy means agreeing to respect an individual's right to determine their course of action. Justice refers to fairness and equity, including the fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to the ethical principle of beneficence rather than benevolence, which focuses on doing good for others without an expectation of something in return. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not directly align with the principle of benevolence.

5. When making an occupied bed, what is important for the nurse to do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When making an occupied bed, using a bath blanket or top sheet is important as it keeps the client warm and provides privacy, ensuring their comfort and dignity. Keeping the bed in the low position is crucial for the safety of the client, preventing falls and injuries. Constantly keeping side rails raised on both sides is unnecessary and may restrict the client's movement unnecessarily. Moving back and forth from one side to the other when adjusting the linens is inefficient and disrupts the workflow; it is more effective to work systematically from one side to the other to ensure proper bed-making.

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