Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

2. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:

• A. sprain.
• B. strain.
• C. subluxation.
• D. dislocation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sprain is the correct term for the excessive stretching of a ligament, which is what happens when a ligament is pulled. A strain involves muscle tissue. Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation, and dislocation is a complete displacement of bones in a joint. In this case, since it's a pulled ligament, the most appropriate term is a sprain.

3. The nurse receives an assignment of three clients. Which of the following should the nurse consider as the highest priority when determining which client to assess first?

• A. the client who most recently rang their call bell
• B. the client who has been waiting the longest for their call bell to be answered
• C. the client who is in the most pain
• D. the client who may have a risk for an airway obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing a client with a potential airway obstruction first based on the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) principle. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial for oxygenation and ventilation, making it the highest priority. Choices A and B focus on call bells and waiting times, which are important but not life-threatening in comparison to airway concerns. While pain management is essential, it takes precedence after addressing immediate life-threatening issues like airway compromise.

4. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

5. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

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