Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: troponin

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

2. How should an infant be secured in a car?

• A. To hold the infant while sitting in the middle of the back seat of the car
• B. To place the infant in the front seat in a rear-facing infant safety seat if the car has passenger-side air bags
• C. To place the infant in a booster seat in the front seat with the shoulder and lap belts secured around the infant
• D. To secure the infant in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing infant safety seat

Correct answer: To secure the infant in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing infant safety seat

Rationale: The recommended way to secure an infant in a car is to place them in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing infant safety seat. Option A is incorrect because infants should never be held while in a moving vehicle due to safety concerns. Option B is incorrect because placing an infant in the front seat with a rear-facing safety seat can be risky if the car has passenger-side airbags. Option C is incorrect as booster seats are not suitable for infants. Therefore, the correct choice is to secure the infant in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing infant safety seat.

3. Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?

• A. high HDL cholesterol
• B. low HDL cholesterol
• C. low total cholesterol
• D. low triglycerides

Correct answer: high HDL cholesterol

Rationale: High HDL cholesterol is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease because HDL cholesterol is known as 'good' cholesterol. It helps remove other forms of cholesterol, like LDL cholesterol, from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of plaque buildup in the arteries. Low HDL cholesterol (Choice B) is actually a risk factor for cardiovascular disease because it means there is less of the 'good' cholesterol to perform its protective functions. Low total cholesterol (Choice C) and low triglycerides (Choice D) are not necessarily associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease, as the balance and types of cholesterol play a more crucial role in heart health.

4. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.

• A. lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals
• B. sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• C. sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: lie down 1 hour after meals; sit up at least 30 minutes after meals

Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.

5. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: ability to speak

Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.

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