NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.
- A. The client is apparently allergic to cefazolin sodium, as indicated by warm, flushed skin and a rash on the arms, chest, and back.
- B. The client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium.
- C. The health care provider was notified because a rash developed while the client was receiving cefazolin sodium.
- D. During an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained that his skin was itchy. The client's skin was warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was notified.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.
2. An 85-year-old client is eligible for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Referral is contingent on meeting which of the following criteria?
- A. homebound status, requiring skilled therapy care
- B. immediate previous hospitalization for acute care
- C. age
- D. requirement of nursing and social work support
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct criteria for Medicare-reimbursable home care services include the client being homebound and requiring a skilled service, such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, or social work. Choice A is correct because it aligns with these requirements. Choice B is incorrect as immediate previous hospitalization is not a prerequisite for home care services. Choice C is incorrect as age alone does not determine eligibility for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Choice D is incorrect as the requirement of nursing and social work support alone is not sufficient for Medicare-reimbursable home care services.
3. The nurse on the 3-11 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and finds that the consent form has been signed, but the client is unclear about the surgery and possible complications. Which is the most appropriate action?
- A. Call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information
- B. Explain the procedure and complications to the client
- C. Check the physician's progress notes to see if understanding has been documented
- D. Check with the client's family to see if they understand the procedure fully
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate action in this scenario is to call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information. It is the responsibility of the physician to explain and clarify the procedure to the client, ensuring informed consent. Answer B is incorrect as nurses should not provide detailed medical explanations beyond their scope of practice. Answer C is incorrect as the physician's notes may not capture the client's current understanding accurately. Answer D is incorrect because the client's own understanding, not the family's, is crucial for informed decision-making regarding the surgery.
4. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m.?
- A. delta sleep
- B. slow brain waves
- C. pneumonia
- D. circadian rhythm
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.
5. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?
- A. Calling the nursing supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription
- B. Asking the healthcare provider to write the prescription in the client's record before leaving the nursing unit
- C. Telling the healthcare provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client's record
- D. Changing the solution and rate of the IV fluid per the healthcare provider's verbal prescription
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.
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