a client receives cefazolin sodium ancef via the intravenous route during the infusion the client begins exhibiting signs of an allergic reaction the
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1. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.

2. Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.

3. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

4. Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: High HDL cholesterol is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease because HDL cholesterol is known as 'good' cholesterol. It helps remove other forms of cholesterol, like LDL cholesterol, from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of plaque buildup in the arteries. Low HDL cholesterol (Choice B) is actually a risk factor for cardiovascular disease because it means there is less of the 'good' cholesterol to perform its protective functions. Low total cholesterol (Choice C) and low triglycerides (Choice D) are not necessarily associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease, as the balance and types of cholesterol play a more crucial role in heart health.

5. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

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