the nurse in the emergency room is admitting a client who has sustained a gunshot wound and will require immediate surgery the client is unconscious a
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex PN Questions and Answers

1. The nurse in the emergency room is admitting a client who has sustained a gunshot wound and will require immediate surgery. The client is unconscious and by themselves. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery to save their life, the priority is to proceed with necessary interventions without delay to ensure the best possible outcome. Obtaining informed consent is essential in healthcare, but in situations where a delay in treatment can be life-threatening, healthcare providers are ethically and legally permitted to proceed with treatment without consent. Attempting to stabilize the client until conscious enough to provide consent or trying to locate family members for consent would cause a dangerous delay in critical care. Therefore, the most appropriate action in this scenario is to transport the unconscious client to the operating room for immediate surgery.

2. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.

3. Why is monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels important?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels is essential to determine the drug's therapeutic range, ensuring optimal effectiveness while avoiding toxicity. Peak levels indicate the drug's highest concentration, while trough levels represent the lowest concentration before the next dose. Assessing renal function is typically done using creatinine, BUN, or creatinine clearance tests, not Serum Vancomycin levels. Evaluating antibiotic resistance involves sensitivity testing, not monitoring Vancomycin levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to determine the therapeutic range.

4. The LPN is receiving the report on a comatose client at the start of the shift at 1500. What statement should be of most concern?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a comatose client, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the integrity of the indwelling urinary catheter to prevent urinary tract infections and other complications. Changing the urinary catheter less frequently than recommended increases the risk of infection. In this scenario, the most concerning issue is the prolonged duration since the last change of the indwelling urinary catheter, which poses an immediate risk to the client's health. While repositioning every 2 hours is essential to prevent skin breakdown, the most critical aspect in this case is the catheter care. Bathing and skin assessment are important for overall hygiene and skin integrity but are not as urgent as catheter care. The timing of the PEG tube change, while relevant for care planning, is not as immediate a concern as the indwelling urinary catheter status.

5. Which is an appropriate outcome for the nursing diagnosis of Body Image Disturbance for a client with anorexia nervosa?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client verbalizes her body size accurately.' For clients with anorexia nervosa, body image disturbance is a common issue where they perceive themselves inaccurately. Verbalizing her body size accurately indicates progress towards correcting this distorted self-perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the distorted body image perception seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice A focuses on knowledge of a maintenance diet, which is unrelated to body image perception. Choice B involves assertiveness with family, which is more related to family dynamics. Choice D addresses control of obsessive behaviors, which is not directly related to correcting the distorted body image perception.

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