Nursing Elites

1. What significant event occurs in the orientation phase of a nurse-client relationship?

• A. establishment of roles
• B. identification of transference phenomenon
• C. placement of the client within their family structure
• D. client agreement that the nurse has the authority in the relationship

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the orientation phase of a nurse-client relationship, the significant event is the identification of transference phenomenon. Transference phenomena are intensified in relationships with authority figures like nurses and physicians. Positive transferences may include a desire for affection and dependency, while negative transferences may involve hostility and competitiveness. It is crucial to recognize and address these transferences before progress and positive changes can be made in the working stage. The other choices are incorrect; the establishment of roles may occur in the working phase, placing the client within their family structure is not a key event in the orientation phase, and client agreement on the nurse's authority is not the primary focus during this phase.

2. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
• B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
• C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
• D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Multiple Drug Use. The nurse should plan care based on knowledge that

• A. Multiple drug use is common.
• B. People might use more than one drug to enhance the effect or relieve withdrawal symptoms.
• C. Combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects.
• D. Assessment and intervention are more complex with multiple drug use due to the synergistic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with Multiple Drug Use, it is important to understand that individuals may use more than one drug simultaneously or sequentially to enhance the effect of a particular drug or to relieve withdrawal symptoms. This practice is common among substance users. For example, heroin users may also consume alcohol, marijuana, or benzodiazepines. Combining drugs can have various effects, such as intensifying intoxication or alleviating withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to recognize that multiple drug use can complicate assessment and intervention due to the diverse effects of different substances on the client's health. Option A is incorrect as multiple drug use is indeed common, not uncommon. Option C is incorrect because combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects. Option D is incorrect because multiple drug use complicates assessment and intervention rather than making them easier, as the effects of different drugs on the client need to be carefully considered.

4. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. "You can eat food prepared in a microwave."?
• B. "You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks."?
• C. "You should use your cellphone on your right side."?
• D. "You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

5. After a client undergoes a left lower lobe lung resection for lung cancer, which post-operative measure would typically be included in the plan?

• A. Closed chest drainage
• B. A tracheostomy
• C. A mediastinal tube
• D. Percussion vibration and drainage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a lung resection, such as the removal of the left lower lobe for lung cancer, closed chest drainage is a common post-operative measure to help drain any excess air or fluid from the chest cavity. A tracheostomy is not typically needed for this procedure, so choice B is incorrect. Similarly, a mediastinal tube is not routinely inserted following a left lower lobe lung resection, making choice C incorrect. Percussion vibration and drainage are not indicated for this type of surgery, so choice D is also incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is closed chest drainage.

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