Nursing Elites

1. Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?

• A. "The physician will probably want to admit you for observation."?
• B. "The physician will probably order bedrest at home."?
• C. "These are really dangerous signs."?
• D. "The physician will probably prescribe some medicine for you."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision. Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.

2. After a left heart catheterization (LHC), a client complains of severe foot pain on the side of the femoral stick. The nurse notes pulselessness, pallor, and a cold extremity. What should the nurse's next action be?

• A. Administer an anticoagulant.
• B. Warm the room and re-assess.
• C. Increase IV fluids.
• D. Notify the physician stat.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to notify the physician immediately (stat). The client's symptoms of foot pain, pulselessness, pallor, and cold extremity suggest a potential vascular complication, such as arterial occlusion. Prompt notification of the physician is crucial as this condition requires urgent intervention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue damage. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice A) without physician evaluation could be harmful as the underlying cause needs to be determined first. Warming the room and re-assessing (Choice B) may delay necessary treatment. Increasing IV fluids (Choice C) is unlikely to address the urgent vascular issue indicated by the symptoms described.

3. An infection in a central venous access device is not eliminated by giving antibiotics through the catheter. How might bacterial glycocalyx contribute to this?

• A. It protects the bacteria from antibiotic and immunologic destruction.
• B. Glycocalyx neutralizes the antibiotic, rendering it ineffective.
• C. It competes with the antibiotic for binding sites on the microbe.
• D. Glycocalyx provides nutrients for microbial growth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bacterial glycocalyx is a viscous polysaccharide or polypeptide slime that covers microbes. It plays a significant role in protecting bacteria by enhancing adherence to surfaces, resisting phagocytic engulfment by white blood cells, and preventing antibiotics from contacting the microbe. Choice A is correct because glycocalyx shields the bacteria from both antibiotics and the immune system, allowing the infection to persist. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because glycocalyx does not neutralize antibiotics, compete for binding sites with antibiotics, or provide nutrients for microbial growth.

4. Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:

• A. an antihyperglycemic agent.
• B. a hypoglycemic agent.
• C. an insulin analogue.
• D. a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is classified as an antihyperglycemic agent because it works by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut, thereby preventing hyperglycemia. Choice B, a hypoglycemic agent, is incorrect as hypoglycemic agents stimulate insulin production, which is not the mechanism of action of metformin. Choice C, an insulin analogue, is incorrect as metformin is not a type of insulin but a distinct medication. Choice D, a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant, is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate any pancreatic cells, but rather acts on the liver and gut to lower blood sugar levels.

5. What is the priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural?

• A. Continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure.
• B. Frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate.
• C. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc.
• D. Frequent monitoring of the maternal temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural is continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure. This is crucial because epidural anesthesia can lead to a precipitous drop in blood pressure, which can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus by reducing cardiac output and placental perfusion. While frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate is important, it is not the priority in this situation. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc may not be necessary if the client's blood pressure is stable. Monitoring the maternal temperature is also essential but takes precedence over blood pressure monitoring.

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