melissa smith came to the emergency department in the last week before herestimated date of confinement complaining of headaches blurred vision and v
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision. Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.

2. A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, 'I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is to show respect and empathy towards the client's decision. Choosing surgery for weight loss is a significant decision, and acknowledging and respecting this choice is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Option D is the correct answer as it validates the client's decision and shows support. Options A, B, and C are all inappropriate as they do not address the client's feelings, lack empathy, and can be considered insensitive and unprofessional.

3. A nurse has been ordered to administer Morphine to a patient. Which of the following effects is unrelated to Morphine's effects on the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic that acts centrally to relieve pain by binding to opioid receptors in the CNS, leading to the depressed function of the CNS. Morphine also causes peripheral vasodilation, which can lead to increased blood flow. However, morphine causes venous dilation and increased venous capacity rather than decreased venous capacity. Therefore, the effect of 'Decreased venous capacity' is unrelated to Morphine's effects. Pain relief is a well-known effect of Morphine, as it acts on the CNS to alter the perception of pain.

4. A 93-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer's Disease gets admitted to an Alzheimer's unit. The patient has exhibited signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait. Moreover, the patient is refusing to use a w/c. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 93-year-old female with Alzheimer's Disease exhibiting signs of increased confusion and limited stability with gait, recommending family members to bring pictures to the patient's room is the most appropriate course of action. Visual stimulation in the form of pictures may help decrease signs of confusion and provide comfort to the patient. Option A is incorrect as isolating the patient in her room at all times may worsen her condition by further limiting stimulation and interaction. Option C is incorrect as speech therapy may not directly address the current issues of confusion and gait instability. Option D is incorrect as pushing a wheelchair may not be safe for the patient if she is refusing to use it, potentially leading to falls or further distress.

5. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.

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