Nursing Elites

1. Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa’s complaints with which of the following statements?

• A. “The physician will probably want to admit you for observation.”
• B. “The physician will probably order bedrest at home.”
• C. “These are really dangerous signs.”
• D. “The physician will probably prescribe some medicine for you.”

Correct answer: “The physician will probably order bedrest at home.”

Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision. Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.

2. A 46-year-old has returned from a heart catheterization and wants to get up to start walking 3 hours after the procedure. The nurse should:

• A. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour and check the chart for activity orders.
• B. Allow the patient to begin limited ambulation with assistance.
• C. Recommend a physical therapy consultation for ambulation.
• D. Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for another 6 hours and check the chart for activity orders.

Correct answer: Tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour and check the chart for activity orders.

Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour after a heart catheterization before starting ambulation. This period allows for proper healing and reduces the risk of complications such as bleeding or hematoma formation at the catheter insertion site. Starting ambulation too soon can disrupt the healing process and lead to adverse events. Choice B is incorrect because limited ambulation should not be initiated shortly after the procedure as it may increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as physical therapy consultation is not typically necessary for initial ambulation post-heart catheterization; this can be managed by nursing staff. Choice D is incorrect as keeping the leg straight for 6 hours is excessive and unnecessary, potentially leading to complications such as deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged immobility.

3. The chemotherapeutic agent 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is ordered for a client as an adjunct measure to surgery. Which statement about chemotherapy is true?

• A. It is a local treatment affecting only tumor cells.
• B. It is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells.
• C. It has not yet been proven an effective treatment for cancer.
• D. It is often the drug of choice because it causes few, if any, side effects.

Correct answer: It is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells.

Rationale: The correct answer is that chemotherapy is a systemic treatment affecting both tumor and normal cells. 5-FU, as an antimetabolic drug, inhibits DNA synthesis and interferes with cell replication systemically. It affects all rapidly growing cells, including malignant and normal ones. This drug is used as adjuvant therapy for various cancers. Choice A is incorrect because chemotherapy affects both tumor and normal cells, not just tumor cells. Choice C is incorrect as chemotherapy has been proven effective in treating cancer. Choice D is incorrect because chemotherapy often causes side effects like bone marrow depression, anorexia, stomatitis, nausea, and vomiting.

4. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:

• A. a maintenance dose.
• B. a loading dose.
• C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
• D. the medication to be given intravenously.

Correct answer: a loading dose.

Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.

5. The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:

• A. prednisone (Colisone)
• B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• C. indomethacin (Indocin)
• D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

Correct answer: allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Rationale: The correct answer is allopurinol (Zyloprim) as it is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that decreases uric acid formation. Allopurinol is commonly used to manage gout by lowering uric acid levels. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to decrease inflammation, not to lower uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, but it is not the drug of choice for lowering uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and edema, not to decrease uric acid levels.

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