Nursing Elites

1. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?

• A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
• B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
• C. Ask the patient, "What is making you mad?"?
• D. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.

2. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

3. While making rounds at 3 am, the nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Remove the client from the room immediately.
• B. Leave the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher.
• C. Instruct a nurse tech to pull the fire alarm.
• D. Evacuate all clients from the unit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a fire emergency, the priority is the safety of the individual in the room where the fire is located. Removing the client from the room immediately is the first step in the RACE acronym for fire safety: Rescue/Remove, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish. This action ensures the client's safety before addressing the fire itself. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the client's room to obtain a fire extinguisher can delay the immediate removal of the client from the danger. Choice C is incorrect as pulling the fire alarm should be done after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D is incorrect as evacuating all clients from the unit should come after ensuring the safety of the individual in immediate danger.

4. A nurse suspects a patient is developing Bell's Palsy. The nurse wants to test the function of cranial nerve VII. Which of the following would be the most appropriate testing procedures?

• A. Test the taste sensation over the back of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
• B. Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
• C. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the back of the tongue.
• D. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the front of the tongue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The facial nerve (VII) is responsible for motor function to the face and sensory function to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Therefore, to appropriately test the function of cranial nerve VII, the most appropriate testing procedures involve assessing the taste sensation over the front of the tongue (sensory) and activation of the facial muscles (motor). Option B, 'Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the correct combination of sensory testing over the front of the tongue and motor activation of the facial muscles, which are key functions associated with cranial nerve VII.

5. At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?

• A. 4 years old
• B. 5 years old
• C. 6 years old
• D. 7 years old

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 years old. At this age, children typically have the potential for 20/20 vision. This is considered the standard age for achieving optimal vision clarity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the age at which children achieve 20/20 vision.

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