Nursing Elites

1. During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?

• A. Spoken in a soft tone of voice by the nurse about 5 feet in front of the client
• B. Whispered by the nurse from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested
• C. Spoken by the nurse from the client's side in a normal tone of voice about 10 feet from the ear being tested
• D. Whispered at a distance of 20 feet by the nurse while he or she is standing in front of the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.

2. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

• A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
• B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
• C. overlap of cranial bones.
• D. ossification of the sutures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the anterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the anterior fontanel should be closed. The posterior fontanel should actually close by the age of 2 months, making choice A incorrect. Overlap of cranial bones is not a typical finding in a normal 10-month-old baby's skull, so choice C is incorrect. Ossification of the sutures is an ongoing process in skull development and should not be a definitive indicator at this age, making choice D incorrect.

3. What is the most appropriate initial action for a newborn infant with low blood glucose?

• A. Ask the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeat the test
• B. Contact the healthcare provider
• C. Contact the registered nurse
• D. Document the results in the newborn's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain greater than 40 mg/dL to prevent permanent brain damage. When dealing with low blood glucose in a newborn, the most appropriate initial action is to contact the registered nurse. The nurse will obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with low blood glucose and follow agency policies on feeding infants in such conditions. It is common practice to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL or less. Asking the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeating the test is not the most appropriate immediate action, as timely intervention is crucial in this situation. Contacting the healthcare provider may cause unnecessary delays since the registered nurse is usually the first point of contact for immediate actions in this scenario. Documenting the results in the newborn's medical record is essential, but it is not the initial step in managing low blood glucose in a newborn.

4. Which of the following vaccines contains a live virus?

• A. varicella
• B. IPV
• C. DTaP
• D. hepatitis B

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is varicella. Varicella vaccine contains a live, weakened form of the varicella-zoster virus. Choice B, IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine), is an inactivated vaccine, not a live virus vaccine. Choices C and D, DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine) and hepatitis B vaccine, respectively, do not contain live viruses. Varicella is the only live virus vaccine among the options.

5. What is one of the main goals of Healthy People 2010?

• A. reduction of health care costs
• B. elimination of health disparities
• C. investigation of substance abuse
• D. determination of an acceptable morbidity rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of Healthy People 2010 is the elimination of health disparities among the U.S. population. This initiative outlines specific objectives to improve the overall health of Americans by addressing disparities in health outcomes. Choice A, reduction of health care costs, is not the primary goal of Healthy People 2010, although it may be a beneficial outcome. Choice C, investigation of substance abuse, is not a main goal of Healthy People 2010; while substance abuse may be a factor in health disparities, the primary focus is on broader disparities. Choice D, determination of an acceptable morbidity rate, is not the main focus of Healthy People 2010; instead, it aims to address health disparities in different population groups.

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