Nursing Elites

1. During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?

• A. Spoken in a soft tone of voice by the nurse about 5 feet in front of the client
• B. Whispered by the nurse from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested
• C. Spoken by the nurse from the client's side in a normal tone of voice about 10 feet from the ear being tested
• D. Whispered at a distance of 20 feet by the nurse while he or she is standing in front of the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.

2. A male client is learning about testicular self-examination (TSE) from a nurse. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'A good time to examine the testicles is during or after you take a shower.'
• B. 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.'
• C. 'The testicle is round and smooth. It feels firm and without lumps.'
• D. 'Perform a testicular exam monthly to detect early signs of testicular cancer.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.' During a shower or bath is the best time to examine the testes because warm temperatures make the testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should be performed monthly to detect any abnormalities early. The physician needs to be notified immediately if any abnormal findings are noticed. Choice A is incorrect because the best time for TSE is during or after a warm shower or bath, not just before. Choice C is incorrect as the testicle should feel round, smooth, and without lumps, not egg-shaped and lumpy. Choice D is incorrect as monthly self-examinations are recommended, not every 2 months.

3. A nurse is palpating a client's sinus areas. Which sensation does the nurse expect the client to indicate that he or she is feeling during palpation if the sinuses are normal?

• A. Firm pressure
• B. Pain behind the eyes
• C. Pain during palpation
• D. Pressure producing an acute headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Firm pressure. When the sinuses are normal, the client is expected to feel firm pressure during palpation. Pain during palpation of the sinuses is indicative of acute sinusitis, not a normal finding. Pain behind the eyes and pressure producing an acute headache are symptoms of acute sinusitis, not sensations felt during sinus palpation in normal sinuses.

4. A nurse palpates a client’s radial pulse, noting the rate, rhythm, and force, and concludes that the client’s pulse is normal. Which notation would the nurse make in the client’s record to document the force of the client’s pulse?

• A. 4+
• B. 3+
• C. 2+
• D. 1+

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a pulse, the nurse should note the rhythm, amplitude, and symmetry of pulses and should compare peripheral pulses on the two sides for rate, rhythm, and quality. A 4-point scale may be used to assess the force (amplitude) of the pulse: 4+ for a bounding pulse, 3+ for an increased pulse, 2+ for a normal pulse, and 1+ for a weak pulse. In this case, the nurse would grade the client’s pulse as 2+ based on the description of a normal pulse. Therefore, the correct notation for the force of the client’s pulse is '2+' as it indicates a normal pulse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent different levels of pulse force that do not align with the description given in the scenario.

5. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

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