Nursing Elites

1. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.

2. Which of the following foods present a problem for a client diagnosed with Celiac Disease?

• A. butter
• B. oats or barley cereal
• C. fresh vegetables
• D. coffee or tea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue, is a malabsorption disorder affecting the small intestine due to a problem with ingesting gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, oats, and barley. Therefore, oats or barley cereal would present a problem for a client with Celiac Disease as they contain gluten. Fresh vegetables, butter, coffee, and tea, on the other hand, do not contain gluten and should not pose any issues for individuals with this disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is oats or barley cereal. Choices A, C, and D are not problematic for clients with Celiac Disease as they are gluten-free.

3. A nurse is assisting a new nursing graduate with organizational skills in delivering client care. The nurse determines that the new nursing graduate needs assistance with time management if the new graduate takes which action?

• A. Gathers supplies before beginning a task
• B. Allows time for unexpected tasks
• C. Prioritizes client needs and daily tasks
• D. Documents task completion and client information at the end of the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Gathers supplies before beginning a task.' This action indicates a lack of effective time management because gathering supplies before starting a task can lead to inefficiency and time wastage. Effective time management involves organizing tasks efficiently, which includes having all necessary supplies ready before initiating a task. Allowing time for unexpected tasks, prioritizing client needs and daily tasks, and documenting task completion and client information at the end of the day are all essential components of good time management practices. Therefore, the new nursing graduate should focus on improving the timing of supply gathering to enhance time management skills. The other choices are not indicative of poor time management; instead, they demonstrate important aspects of effective time management in client care delivery.

4. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

5. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:

• A. scalding from hot bath water or spills
• B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces
• C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns
• D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most common type of first-degree burn in small children is sunburn, often due to lack of protection and overexposure to the sun. This type of burn highlights the importance of educating parents about using sunscreens and ensuring children are adequately protected from the sun's harmful rays. Choices A, B, and C describe scenarios that can lead to burns but are not the most common type of first-degree burn in small children, making them incorrect.

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