NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?
- A. ability to speak
- B. ability to hear
- C. oxygen saturation
- D. adventitious breath sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.
2. The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?
- A. urinalysis
- B. creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
- C. chemistry of electrolytes
- D. creatinine clearance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.
3. A client scheduled for surgery tells the nurse that he signed an informed consent for the surgical procedure but was never told about the risks of the surgery. The nurse serves as the client's advocate by undertaking which action?
- A. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal
- B. Noting in the client's record that the client was not told about the risks of the surgery
- C. Writing a note on the front of the client's record so that the surgeon will see it when the client arrives in the operating room
- D. Informing the surgeon verbally about the lack of information provided to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nurse serves as a client advocate by protecting the client's right to be informed and to participate in decisions regarding care. In this scenario, the nurse should document in the client's record that the client was not informed about the risks of the surgery. This action ensures that the issue is officially noted and can be addressed by the healthcare team. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal is incorrect because it dismisses the client's concerns and does not address the lack of information provided. Writing a note on the client's chart to inform the surgeon is not as effective as ensuring that the issue is officially documented in the client's record, where it can be reviewed and addressed by the healthcare team. Informing the surgeon verbally is not as reliable as documenting the concern in the client's record, which provides a formal and lasting record for review and follow-up.
4. What should a client room environment include?
- A. a made bed, fresh water, thermostat regulation, and clean floors in all occupied client areas.
- B. a made bed, comfort and safety, a clutter-free area, hygiene articles nearby.
- C. accident prevention, comfort, a room (including furniture) that has been cleaned with chloroseptic wash, a bed that is made every other day.
- D. odor control (by spraying the room with deodorizers), closet storage of all client objects, a clean room. (Gloves should be worn when cleaning.)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client room environment should include a made bed to provide a sense of neatness and comfort, ensuring the client's safety at all times. It is important to maintain a clutter-free area to prevent accidents and promote a relaxing environment. Having hygiene articles nearby allows the client easy access to personal care items. Choice A is incorrect because while fresh water and thermostat regulation are important, they are not essential components of a client room environment. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes more on cleaning procedures rather than creating a comfortable and safe environment for the client. Choice D is incorrect as it emphasizes odor control and storage rather than the client's comfort and safety.
5. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?
- A. coma
- B. edema
- C. hypoxia
- D. polyuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.
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