Nursing Elites

1. A client is refusing to stay in the hospital because he does not agree with his healthcare treatment plan. The nurse stops the client from leaving due to concern for his health. Which of these legal charges could the nurse face?

• A. False imprisonment, as the nurse is not allowing the client to leave as he has decided to.
• B. Malpractice, as the nurse is intentionally keeping the patient from making his own decisions, thus violating that nursing duty.
• C. Invasion of privacy, as the nurse is getting involved in the patient's private decisions regarding healthcare.
• D. Negligence, as the nurse ignored the client's right to choose regarding his healthcare.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Refusing to let a client leave against medical advice (AMA) is a form of false imprisonment. In this scenario, the nurse is restricting the client's freedom of movement by preventing him from leaving the hospital, even though he has expressed his wish to leave. False imprisonment is a legal charge the nurse could face in this situation. The other options are incorrect: - Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to provide adequate care, not allowing a patient to make their own decisions. - Invasion of privacy involves disclosing confidential information without consent, not preventing a patient from leaving. - Negligence is the failure to take reasonable care, but it does not specifically address the act of restricting a patient from leaving against their wishes.

2. An LPN on a Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) team is tasked with implementing strategies to reduce medication errors. Which of the following strategies would be most beneficial for the LPN to implement?

• A. Track individuals who commit medication errors and report them to administration.
• B. Remind staff of the five rights of medication administration.
• C. Ensure that all staff members are proficient in completing incident reports if a medication error occurs.
• D. Double-check that staff document medication administration in the electronic medical record.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most beneficial strategy for the LPN on a CQI team to implement is to ensure that all staff members are proficient in completing incident reports if a medication error occurs. Organized and accurate incident reports are crucial in tracking and understanding why errors occurred. CQI teams utilize incident reports to develop new policies or enhance existing ones to standardize medical processes and reduce errors. Tracking individuals with medication errors (Choice A) may create a culture of blame rather than focusing on system improvements. Reminding staff of the five rights of medication administration (Choice B) is important for knowledge reinforcement but does not directly address the process improvement aspect. Double-checking documentation in the electronic medical record (Choice D) is necessary for accuracy but does not provide the detailed insights obtained from incident reports for process improvement.

3. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

4. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

• A. heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
• B. heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
• C. bleeding, reflex, edema
• D. respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

5. When administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor:

• A. BUN and creatinine.
• B. creatinine and calcium.
• C. Hgb and Hct.
• D. BUN and CFT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an elderly client with cancer is receiving NSAID therapy, monitoring BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels is crucial. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity, especially in the elderly. BUN and creatinine levels help assess renal function and detect early signs of renal impairment. Monitoring creatinine alone (Choice B) is not sufficient as BUN provides complementary information about renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) (Choice C) is important for assessing anemia but not specific to NSAID therapy in the elderly. CFT (Choice D) is not a standard abbreviation in this context, and monitoring coagulation function is not directly related to NSAID therapy in this scenario.

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