Nursing Elites

1. A client is refusing to stay in the hospital because he does not agree with his healthcare treatment plan. The nurse stops the client from leaving due to concern for his health. Which of these legal charges could the nurse face?

• A. False imprisonment, as the nurse is not allowing the client to leave as he has decided to.
• B. Malpractice, as the nurse is intentionally keeping the patient from making his own decisions, thus violating that nursing duty.
• C. Invasion of privacy, as the nurse is getting involved in the patient's private decisions regarding healthcare.
• D. Negligence, as the nurse ignored the client's right to choose regarding his healthcare.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Refusing to let a client leave against medical advice (AMA) is a form of false imprisonment. In this scenario, the nurse is restricting the client's freedom of movement by preventing him from leaving the hospital, even though he has expressed his wish to leave. False imprisonment is a legal charge the nurse could face in this situation. The other options are incorrect: - Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to provide adequate care, not allowing a patient to make their own decisions. - Invasion of privacy involves disclosing confidential information without consent, not preventing a patient from leaving. - Negligence is the failure to take reasonable care, but it does not specifically address the act of restricting a patient from leaving against their wishes.

2. Which of these types of fluid output is not typically measured?

• A. chest tube drainage
• B. emesis
• C. evaporative water from the respiratory tract
• D. urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'urine.' Urine output is routinely measured to assess renal function and fluid balance. Choices A, B, and C are types of fluid output that are typically measured in a clinical setting. Chest tube drainage is monitored to evaluate drainage from the chest cavity, emesis refers to vomitus which can indicate gastrointestinal issues, and evaporative water from the respiratory tract is considered insensible loss and is not directly measured but estimated in overall fluid balance assessments.

3. When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?

• A. when clients are left in one position in bed for extended periods of time.
• B. when clients are underweight.
• C. when clients are overweight.
• D. only in underweight and overweight clients.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences and are caused by decreased circulation. The client who is left in one position in bed for extended periods of time is more prone to decreased circulation to an area of the body and to acquiring a pressure ulcer. Choices B and C are incorrect as pressure ulcers are not exclusive to underweight or overweight clients. The key factor is prolonged pressure on the skin, not the weight of the client. Therefore, the correct answer is that pressure ulcers are most likely to occur when clients are immobilized in one position for extended periods of time.

4. The LPN is auscultating for bowel sounds and hears between 3 and 4 bowel sounds per minute. This is a somewhat expected finding for which of these clients?

• A. a 63-year-old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer
• B. a 56-year-old female with dementia undergoing a swallow study
• C. a 34-year-old male with a PEG tube newly admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis
• D. a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When recovering from general anesthesia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be expected due to the effects of the anesthesia on gut motility. For the other clients, hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would indicate an abnormal finding. In the context of the given situation, the client recovering from knee replacement surgery aligns with the expected range of bowel sounds post-general anesthesia. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C present scenarios where hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would be abnormal, indicating potential issues that need further evaluation.

5. At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?

• A. in the working phase
• B. in the termination phase
• C. in the orientation phase
• D. when the client initially brings up the topic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Termination in the nurse-client relationship should first be addressed in the orientation phase. This is because the client has a right to know the parameters of the relationship from the beginning. During the orientation phase, it is important to discuss if the relationship is time-limited, inform the client about the number of sessions, or explain that it is open-ended with the termination date to be negotiated later. Addressing termination in the orientation phase helps establish transparency and clear communication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because termination discussions should ideally start at the beginning of the relationship to set appropriate expectations.

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