Nursing Elites

1. Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley's level of anxiety as:

• A. mild.
• B. moderate.
• C. severe.
• D. panic.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explanation: Ashley is displaying symptoms of severe anxiety, including confusion, trouble focusing, dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. These somatic symptoms, along with changes in vital signs, indicate severe anxiety. In severe anxiety, individuals are unable to solve problems and have a poor grasp of their environment. On the other hand, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance, while moderate anxiety results in difficulty grasping information and minor changes in vital signs. Panic, the most severe level of anxiety, involves markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, based on Ashley's symptoms, her anxiety level should be assessed as severe.

2. A client can receive the mumps, measles, rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold. A simple cold without fever does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine due to the live rubella component, which may lead to birth defects or disease. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine according to the American Academy of Pediatrics.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Multiple Drug Use. The nurse should plan care based on knowledge that

• A. Multiple drug use is common.
• B. People might use more than one drug to enhance the effect or relieve withdrawal symptoms.
• C. Combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects.
• D. Assessment and intervention are more complex with multiple drug use due to the synergistic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with Multiple Drug Use, it is important to understand that individuals may use more than one drug simultaneously or sequentially to enhance the effect of a particular drug or to relieve withdrawal symptoms. This practice is common among substance users. For example, heroin users may also consume alcohol, marijuana, or benzodiazepines. Combining drugs can have various effects, such as intensifying intoxication or alleviating withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to recognize that multiple drug use can complicate assessment and intervention due to the diverse effects of different substances on the client's health. Option A is incorrect as multiple drug use is indeed common, not uncommon. Option C is incorrect because combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects. Option D is incorrect because multiple drug use complicates assessment and intervention rather than making them easier, as the effects of different drugs on the client need to be carefully considered.

4. When medications have an additive, synergistic, or antagonistic effect on a tissue, a ________ reaction has occurred.

• A. pharmaceutical
• B. pharmacodynamic
• C. pharmacokinetic
• D. drug incompatibility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'pharmacodynamic.' Pharmacodynamics pertain to the effect of a drug on receptors, explaining how drugs affect tissues. Pharmaceutical reactions refer to chemical reactions between drugs before administration or absorption, not their effect on tissues. Pharmacokinetic reactions involve how the body affects the drug, not the tissue. Drug incompatibilities are essentially pharmaceutical reactions, not the specific effects on tissues seen in pharmacodynamic reactions.

5. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

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