NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. An Rh-negative woman with previous sensitization has delivered an Rh-positive fetus. Which of the following nursing actions should be included in the client's care plan?
- A. emotional support to help the family cope with feelings of guilt about the infant's condition
- B. administration of MICRhoGam to the woman within 72 hours of delivery
- C. administration of Rh-immune globulin to the newborn within 1 hour of delivery
- D. lab analysis of maternal Direct Coombs' test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the Rh-negative woman has been sensitized, posing a risk to any Rh-positive fetus she delivers. The most appropriate nursing action is to provide emotional support to help the family cope with the infant's condition. This includes addressing potential outcomes like death or neurological damage. Administering MICRhoGam (Choice B) to a sensitized woman is not recommended; it is only given post-abortion or ectopic pregnancy to prevent sensitization. Rh-immune globulin is not administered to the newborn (Choice C) in this case. Analyzing the maternal Direct Coombs' test (Choice D) is unnecessary; instead, an Indirect Coombs' test is used to assess sensitization. Therefore, the correct nursing action is to offer emotional support to the family, acknowledging the challenges they may face.
2. A nurse is assisting with data collection regarding skin and peripheral vascular findings on a client in later adulthood. Which observation would the nurse expect to note as an age-related finding?
- A. Thin, ridged toenails
- B. Thick skin on the lower legs
- C. Loss of hair on the lower legs
- D. Bounding dorsalis pedis pulse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In later adulthood, age-related findings include trophic changes associated with arterial insufficiency, such as thin, shiny skin; thin, ridged toenails; and loss of hair on the lower legs. These changes occur normally with aging. Thick skin on the lower legs would not be an expected age-related finding as it typically indicates chronic venous insufficiency. A bounding dorsalis pedis pulse is not typical in later adulthood and may indicate arterial insufficiency, which is not an age-related finding.
3. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client exhibits rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball when looking at the nurse. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
- A. Ptosis
- B. Nystagmus
- C. Scleral icterus
- D. Exophthalmos
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse observes rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball in a client, this is described as nystagmus. Nystagmus appears as a fine oscillating movement, most notable around the iris. It is important to assess for nystagmus when evaluating ocular muscle weakness. Mild nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze is considered normal; nystagmus in any other position is not. Ptosis refers to a drooping of the eyelid, not rapid eye movements. Scleral icterus is the yellowing of the sclera up to the cornea, indicating jaundice, not related to eye movements. Exophthalmos is a noticeable protrusion of the eyeball, typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not associated with rapid oscillating eye movements.
4. All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:
- A. high infant mortality rate
- B. frequent use of Emergency Departments
- C. consultation with folk healers
- D. low incidence of dental problems
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'low incidence of dental problems.' Dental problems are prevalent in families living in poverty due to the lack of preventive care and access to dental services. High infant mortality rate is closely correlated with poverty as it reflects various social determinants of health. Families in poverty may resort to frequent use of Emergency Departments due to limited access to primary care. Consulting with folk healers is also common among families in poverty as they might seek alternative and more accessible healthcare options. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in families experiencing poverty.
5. The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access