Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to auscultate for the presence of bowel sounds in a client who has just undergone surgery. The nurse places the stethoscope in which abdominal quadrant first?

• A. Left upper quadrant
• B. Left lower quadrant
• C. Right upper quadrant
• D. Right lower quadrant

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the right lower quadrant. The nurse starts auscultating in this quadrant at the ileocecal valve as bowel sounds are normally always present there. Then, the nurse proceeds to listen for bowel sounds in the other quadrants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the initial placement of the stethoscope should be in the right lower quadrant to assess bowel sounds post-surgery.

2. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

3. An allergic reaction is classified as what type of pharmacological effect?

• A. a therapeutic effect
• B. a side effect
• C. an adverse effect
• D. an incompatibility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An allergic reaction is classified as an adverse effect because it is an unintended response to a medication that requires treatment. A side effect is an undesired but somewhat expected reaction to a drug that does not necessarily need intervention. Incompatibility refers to an unsuitable combination of substances that leads to an adverse effect. A therapeutic effect is the desired and intended outcome of a medication.

4. Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?

• A. rickets
• B. marasmus
• C. kwashiorkor
• D. scurvy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client exhibits rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball when looking at the nurse. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

• A. Ptosis
• B. Nystagmus
• C. Scleral icterus
• D. Exophthalmos

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse observes rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball in a client, this is described as nystagmus. Nystagmus appears as a fine oscillating movement, most notable around the iris. It is important to assess for nystagmus when evaluating ocular muscle weakness. Mild nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze is considered normal; nystagmus in any other position is not. Ptosis refers to a drooping of the eyelid, not rapid eye movements. Scleral icterus is the yellowing of the sclera up to the cornea, indicating jaundice, not related to eye movements. Exophthalmos is a noticeable protrusion of the eyeball, typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not associated with rapid oscillating eye movements.

Similar Questions