NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. A sexually active adolescent asks the school nurse about the use of latex condoms and the reduction of the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse provides which information to the adolescent?
- A. Using a latex condom is a good method for reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
- B. The only way to reduce the risk of transmission of STIs is abstinence.
- C. A spermicide needs to be used along with a condom to prevent transmission of STIs.
- D. Using a latex condom can reduce the risk of transmission of STIs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that using a condom during intercourse can reduce the risk of STI transmission. Abstinence is a way to prevent STIs, but not the only way. Using a spermicide along with a condom can help prevent pregnancy, not STIs. While condoms may fail to prevent pregnancy, they are effective in reducing the risk of STI transmission. Therefore, using a latex condom for pregnancy prevention is not directly related to preventing the transmission of STIs.
2. Ms. Petty is having difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures promote sleep?
- A. exercising vigorously for 20 minutes each night beginning at 9:30 p.m.
- B. taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea
- C. watching TV nightly until midnight
- D. getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is getting a back rub and drinking a glass of warm milk. These measures are relaxation techniques that can help promote sleep by calming the body and mind. Exercising vigorously right before bedtime, as mentioned in choice A, can increase arousal and make it harder to fall asleep. Choice B, taking a cool shower and drinking a hot cup of tea, involves temperature changes that might not be conducive to sleep. Watching TV until midnight, as in choice C, exposes the individual to blue light and mental stimulation, both of which can disrupt the natural sleep-wake cycle.
3. When should rehabilitation services begin?
- A. when the client enters the health care system.
- B. after the client requests rehabilitation services.
- C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
- D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can prevent complications, maximize recovery potential, and improve overall health outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because delaying rehabilitation until the client requests it may result in missed opportunities for timely intervention. Choice C is incorrect as waiting for the client's physical condition to stabilize can lead to unnecessary delays in starting the rehabilitation process, potentially slowing down recovery progress. Choice D is incorrect because starting rehabilitation only after discharge can hinder the recovery process by missing out on crucial early stages of intervention and support.
4. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:
- A. climacteric
- B. menopause
- C. perimenopause
- D. postmenopause
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. It typically lasts around five years. In the case of the middle-aged woman experiencing irregular menses for six months, she aligns with perimenopause as it involves irregular menstrual cycles, one of the common symptoms during this transitional phase. Climacteric is a term describing the period of life with physiologic changes leading to the end of a woman's reproductive ability but not specifically characterized by irregular menses. Menopause marks the permanent cessation of menses and does not involve the transitional irregularities seen in perimenopause. Postmenopause is the phase after the completion of menopausal changes.
5. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?
- A. nausea and vomiting
- B. itching
- C. urinary retention
- D. somnolence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access