NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. A sexually active adolescent asks the school nurse about the use of latex condoms and the reduction of the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The nurse provides which information to the adolescent?
- A. Using a latex condom is a good method for reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
- B. The only way to reduce the risk of transmission of STIs is abstinence.
- C. A spermicide needs to be used along with a condom to prevent transmission of STIs.
- D. Using a latex condom can reduce the risk of transmission of STIs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that using a condom during intercourse can reduce the risk of STI transmission. Abstinence is a way to prevent STIs, but not the only way. Using a spermicide along with a condom can help prevent pregnancy, not STIs. While condoms may fail to prevent pregnancy, they are effective in reducing the risk of STI transmission. Therefore, using a latex condom for pregnancy prevention is not directly related to preventing the transmission of STIs.
2. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the woman's uterine fundus. At what location does the nurse expect to be able to palpate the fundus?
- A. At the level of the umbilicus
- B. Two centimeters above the umbilicus
- C. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
- D. In the pelvic cavity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus can be palpated at this location but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus before sinking to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus starts descending gradually. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally. Choices A and B are incorrect as the fundus is not initially at the level of the umbilicus or 2 centimeters above it. Choice D is also incorrect as the fundus does not remain in the pelvic cavity immediately after delivery.
3. When preparing a client for surgery, the graduate nurse realizes the operative permit has not been signed. The client tells the nurse he understands the procedure but received his preoperative medication approximately 10 minutes prior. The appropriate action would be:
- A. Have the client sign the permit, as he verbalizes understanding.
- B. Witness the form after having the client sign it.
- C. Have his wife sign the form as she witnessed him saying he wants the surgery.
- D. Call the surgical area and explain the surgery will have to be cancelled.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to call the surgical area and explain that the surgery will have to be cancelled. The client must sign the operative permit or any other legal document before receiving preoperative medication. Without the signed permit, the surgery cannot proceed to ensure the client's safety and legal compliance. Having the client sign the permit, witnessing the form after the client signs it, or having someone else sign the form are all inappropriate actions and do not address the legal requirement of the client's signature before receiving preoperative medication.
4. The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
5. When transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair, which safety measure should be implemented?
- A. Standing the client and walking them to the wheelchair
- B. Moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and standing and pivoting the client on their unaffected extremity to the wheelchair
- C. Moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and standing and pivoting the client on their affected extremity to the wheelchair
- D. Having the client stand and push their body to the wheelchair
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair, it is crucial to ensure their safety. The correct safety measure is to move the wheelchair close to the client's bed and have the client stand and pivot on their unaffected extremity to the wheelchair. This method provides support with the unaffected limb, reducing the risk of falls or injuries. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests walking the client, which may not be safe or feasible. Choice C is incorrect because pivoting on the affected extremity can increase the risk of injury. Choice D is incorrect as it does not consider the client's limitations and safety needs, as it involves pushing their body which may not be possible with hemiparesis.
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